95 previous year UPSC Prelims questions on the UPSC 2019 Prelims. Choose an option to see the answer and explanation.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 81–90 of 95 questions
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UPSC 2019Geography · Indian Geography
Q81. What is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati?
Explanation
Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati are geographically dispersed across different states, but they share the common characteristic of being sites of significant water reservoirs. These reservoirs are crucial for irrigation, drinking water supply, and sometimes hydroelectric power generation in their respective regions.
UPSC 2019Environment and Ecology · Miscellaneous
Q82. Recently, there was a growing awareness in our country about the importance of Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) because it is found to be a sustainable source of:
Explanation
The Himalayan nettle has gained attention as a sustainable source of textile fibre. The fibres extracted from the stems of this plant are strong, durable, and eco-friendly, making them suitable for producing textiles. This has significant potential for promoting sustainable livelihoods in rural and mountainous regions, especially in the Himalayas. Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) is not known for its use as an anti-malarial drug. Anti-malarial drugs are derived from plants like Artemisia annua (source of artemisinin) or Cinchona officinalis (source of quinine). Himalayan nettle is not recognized as a source of biodiesel. Biodiesel is usually derived from oil-rich plants like Jatropha, Pongamia, or algae. While Himalayan nettle is a fibrous plant but it is not widely used as a source of pulp for the paper industry. The paper industry primarily relies on wood pulp from trees like Eucalyptus, Bamboo, or agricultural residues like wheat straw and bagasse.
UPSC 2019Modern History · Prominent Personalities in Modern History
Q83. Consider the following pairs:
Movement/Organization
Leader
1. All India Anti-Untouchability League
Mahatma Gandhi
2. All India Kisan Sabha
Swami Sahajanand Saraswati
3. Self-Respect Movement
E. V. Ramaswami Naicker
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Explanation
Pair 1 is correctly matched: On 30 September, 1932, Mahatma Gandhi founded the All India Anti Untouchability League, to remove untouchability in society. This league for social transformation resonated throughout the nation, including in Bihar, where enthusiastic support was seen.
Pair 2 is correctly matched: Sahajanand Saraswati, a prominent peasant leader, was the first President of the All India Kisan Sabha (AIKS), founded in 1936 in Lucknow. The organization aimed to address the issues faced by peasants and advocate for agrarian reforms.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: The Self-Respect Movement was started by E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker in Tamil Nadu in 1925 with the aim of destroying the contemporary Hindu social order in its totality and creating a new, rational society without caste.
UPSC 2019Modern History · Prominent Personalities in Modern History
Q84. With reference to Indian National Movement, consider the following pairs:
Person
Position held
1. Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru
President, All India Liberal Federation
2. K. C. Neogy
Member, The Constituent Assembly
3. P. C. Joshi
General Secretary, Communist Party of India
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Explanation
Pair 1 is correctly matched: All India Liberal Federation was founded by Surendra Nath Banarjea and some of its prominent leaders were Tej Bahadur Sapru, V. S. Srinivasa Sastri and M. R. Jayakar. Tej Bahadur Sapru was one of the presidents of Indian National Liberal Federation. It advocated for gradual constitutional progress and dominion status for India.
Pair 2 is correctly matched: K.C. Neogy was a member of the Constituent Assembly of India, a member of the first Cabinet of independent India and the chairman of the first Finance Commission of India.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Puran Chand Joshi was an early leader of the communist movement in India. He served as the first General Secretary of the Communist Party of India from 1935 to 1947, playing a crucial role in shaping the party’s direction during a formative period.
UPSC 2019Polity · Governor
Q85. With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements: 1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year. 2. When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Article 176(1) states that, through the legislative powers of the Governor, he can address the state legislature at the commencement of the first session after each general election and the first session of each year.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 208 of the Indian Constitution empowers State Legislatures to create rules for regulating their procedures and business. The state legislature can formulate its own ad hoc rules or rely on the Speaker’s discretion for procedural clarity. Each state’s legislative assembly has its autonomy in procedural matters, and there is no binding provision mandating the use of Lok Sabha rules unless adopted by the state legislature itself.
Exam tip:
For S2, State Legislature subordinate to the Union Parliament in terms of procedure. Lok Sabha rules aren’t automatically binding on states -- states are federally autonomous in procedural functioning. This statement suggests an automatic fallback -- which is an over generalization hence likely false.
UPSC 2019Indian Economy · External Sector of India
Q86. With reference to Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), consider the following statements: 1. AIIB has more than 80 member nations. 2. India is the largest shareholder in AIIB. 3. AlIB does not have any members from outside Asia. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: As of 2023 the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) had 105 member’s. As of January 2025 the AIIB boasts 110 approved members worldwide which indicates its extensive global reach.
Statement 2 is incorrect: India is the second-largest shareholder in AIIB and holds 7.5% of the voting shares. The largest shareholder is China with 26.5% of the voting shares.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The AIIB’s membership extends beyond Asia and includes countries from Europe, Africa and the Americas. For instance nations like Canada, Egypt, and France are members and reflects the bank’s global appeal.
Exam tip:
S1 and S2 itself contradicts, an organ of NITI and headed by FM, hence either is clearly false, eliminating options A and D. The name ""Financial stability" make the proba-bilty of S2 being true more.
UPSC 2019Indian Economy · External Sector of India
Q87. In the context of India, which of the following factors is/are contributor/contributors to reducing the risk of a currency crisis? 1. The foreign currency earnings of India’s IT sector 2. Increasing the government expenditure 3. Remittances from Indians abroad Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation
A currency crisis occurs when a country’s currency faces a sudden and sharp depreciation, often due to speculative attacks or a loss of confidence in the economy. Several factors can contribute to reducing the risk of such a crisis:
Statement 1 is correct: India’s Information Technology (IT) sector is a major exporter of services, earning substantial foreign exchange. These earnings increase the supply of foreign currency in the country, strengthening the Indian rupee and mitigating the risk of a currency crisis.
Statement 2 is incorrect: While government spending is crucial for economic growth, excessive expenditure can lead to higher fiscal deficits. This may result in increased borrowing, potential inflationary pressures, and could negatively affect investor confidence, thereby increasing the risk of a currency crisis.
Statement 3 is correct: Remittances are funds sent by Indians working overseas back to India. These inflows add to the coun-try’s foreign exchange reserves, providing a buffer against currency volatility and reducing the risk of a currency crisis.
UPSC 2019Indian Economy · External Sector of India
Q88. Consider the following statements: 1. Most of India’s external debt is owed by governmental entities. 2. All of India’s external debt is denominated in US dollars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: While the government does hold a portion of India’s external debt, the majority of it is owed by non-governmental entities, primarily corporations. As of end-March 2023, India’s total external debt stood at approximately USD 624.7 billion. Of this, the government’s external debt was about USD 130.8 billion, accounting for roughly 20.9% of the total external debt. The remaining 79.1% is owed by non-governmental entities, including private sector corporations and financial institutions.
Statement 2 is incorrect: While a significant portion of In-dia’s external debt is indeed denominated in US dollars, it’s not all in US dollars. Indian entities also borrow in other currencies, such as Euros, Japanese Yen, and British Pounds, among others. Diversification of currency exposure is a com-mon practice in debt management. India’s external debt is de-nominated in various currencies. As of end-March 2023, 53.1% of the debt was in US dollars, 31.1% in Indian rupees, 5.7% in Japanese yen, 3.5% in Special Drawing Rights (SDRs), 2.9% in euros, and the remaining 3.7% in other currencies.
Exam tip:
"Most" and "All" are both danger words in UPSC -- always challenge them unless you’re 100% sure.
UPSC 2019Indian Economy · External Sector of India
Q89. Consider the following statements: 1. Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) exchange rates are calculated by comparing the prices of the same basket of goods and services in different countries. 2. In terms of PPP dollars, India is the sixth largest economy in the world. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: PPP is an economic concept that compares the value of currencies by examining the cost of a standard "basket of goods" across different countries. It determines the exchange rate required for one currency to buy the same quantity of goods and services as it would in another country.
Statement 2 is incorrect: As of the latest available data, India ranks as the third-largest economy globally in terms of GDP based on PPP. According to the International Monetary Fund’s World Economic Outlook, India’s GDP (PPP) is approximately $13.17 trillion, placing it behind China and the United States.
UPSC 2019Indian Economy · Human Development and Sustainable Development
Q90. In a given year in India, official poverty lines are higher in some States than in others because:
Explanation
According to the World Bank, Poverty is pronounced deprivation in well-being and comprises many dimensions. It includes low incomes and the inability to acquire the basic goods and services necessary for survival with dignity. The new extreme poverty line of $2.15 per person per day, which replaces the $1.90 poverty line, is based on 2017 PPPs
Option (b) is correct: The official poverty line in India is determined based on the minimum income required to meet basic consumption needs, primarily food, adjusted for other essentials like housing, education, and healthcare. Since the cost of living and price levels differ across states due to factors like inflation, regional disparities, and market conditions, the poverty line is higher in states where the price levels are higher. For instance, states with higher urbanization or living costs like Maharashtra or Delhi might have a higher poverty line compared to states with lower living costs like Bihar or Odisha.
Additional insight:
According to the Planning Commission, the national poverty line for rural regions in 2011-12 was estimated to be Rs. 816 per capita per month in rural areas and Rs. 1,000 per capita per month in urban areas using the Tendulkar methodology.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
81
2019
(d) Water reservoirs
82
2019
(d) textile fibre
83
2019
(d) 1, 2 and 3
84
2019
(d) 1, 2 and 3
85
2019
(a) 1 only
86
2019
(a) 1 only
87
2019
(b) 1 and 3 only
88
2019
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
89
2019
(a) 1 only
90
2019
(b) Price levels vary from State to State
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on all subjects?
This page covers 95 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on the UPSC 2019 Prelims, asked from 1995 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
How should I use previous year UPSC questions for Prelims?
Attempt each question first, then open the answer and read the explanation for every option. Repeat by chapter, and track which statements UPSC reuses across years. Previous year questions show the exam pattern and difficulty level.
Which years are covered for all subjects?
Questions on the UPSC 2019 Prelims are available for 31 years, from 1995 to 2025. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.