UPSC 2017 Prelims Questions with Answers

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: NSQF allows certification through multiple pathways, including formal, non-formal, and informal learning, ensuring recognition of prior learning (RPL) for workers who acquire skills outside formal institutions.

Statement 2 is correct: One of the key goals of NSQF is to ensure mobility between vocational and general education, allowing students and workers to shift between academic and skill-based careers seamlessly.

Explanation

For a candidate to stand for election to the Lok Sabha (the lower house of the Indian Parliament), certain eligibility criteria must be met, as stipulated by the Section 33 of Representation of the People Act, 1951 and the Constitution of India such as:

1. The candidate must be a citizen of India

2. The age of the candidate should not less than 25 years of age

3. The candidate must be registered as an elector for a parliamentary constituency.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) mandates certification for automotive tyres and tubes to ensure road safety and product quality. The BIS Standard Mark indicates compliance with ISI standards.

Statement 2 is incorrect: AGMARK is a certification issued by the Directorate of Marketing & Inspection (DMI), Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare, Government of India, and not by FAO. It ensures the quality of agricultural products like grains, pulses, and edible oils.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Indian constitution adopts the first-past-the-post (FPTP) system of elections where a candidate is declared elected if he/she gets a plurality of the votes, not necessarily 50 percent of the total votes polled. This means that the candidate with the highest number of votes among all contenders is declared the winner, even if they do not achieve an absolute majority.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Under Article 93, Speaker and Deputy speaker are elected by the house. This is a convention (not constitutional provision) that usually the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition. This is an established convention to maintain a balance of power and ensure that the ruling party does not control both the key positions.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: A key goal is raising awareness about malnutrition, particularly for vulnerable groups like pregnant women and lactating mothers.

Statement 2 is correct: The mission aims to reduce anemia prevalence among children, adolescent girls, and women through dietary diversification and micronutrient supplementation.

Statement 3 is correct: The program promotes nutrient-rich foods, including millets and unpolished rice, to enhance dietary diversity.

Statement 4 is incorrect: While eggs are recommended as a protein source, the mission does not specifically promote poultry eggs.

Explanation

The Parliament of India exercises control over the Council of Ministers (including the Prime Minister and other ministers) through various mechanisms such as:

Adjournment Motion is introduced to draw attention of the House to a definite matter of urgent public importance which is definite, factual, urgent, matter of recent occurrence. It needs the support of 50 members to be admitted. It involves an element of censure against the government and hence Rajya Sabha is not permitted to make use of this device. Question Hour is a crucial tool used by the members of Parliament to question the Council of Ministers regarding their decisions, actions, and the functioning of their departments. During Question Hour (usually the first hour of every sitting in the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha), members can ask both oral and written questions on any matter within the jurisdiction of the government. In addition to the ministers, the questions can also be asked to the private members. It has been mentioned in the Rule of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha. Supplementary questions are follow-up questions asked by members of Parliament after the initial answer provided by the Minister during Question Hour. These allow for further probing and clarification on issues raised in the original question. This process enables greater scrutiny and oversight of the functioning of the Council of Ministers. Three types of Question are asked namely:- Starred Question: Require oral answer and Supplementary question can be asked. Unstarred Question: Require written answer and Supplementary question cannot be asked. Short Notice Question: Answered orally and asked on short notice of less than 10 days.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: A Private Member bill can be introduced by any member of the Parliament other than a minister. A bill introduced by a Minister in the Parliament is generally called a government bill. A Private member bill generally reflects the stand of the opposition party on public matters. There is less likelihood that the Parliament will adopt it. Its rejection by the House has no implication on the parliamentary confidence in the government or its resignation A 1-month notice is required before introducing the Bill. They are discussed only on Fridays in both Houses of Parliament during Private Members’ Business hours. Constitutional Amendment can be moved by Private member bill.

Statement 2 is incorrect: As of now around 14 private member’s bills have been passed since independence in Indian Parliament. Examples: The Hindu Marriage (Amendment) Bill 1956, The Orphanages & Other Charitable Homes (Supervision & Control) Bill 1960. Marine Insurance Bill 1959 etc. None have been passed in both Houses since 1970.

Explanation

The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) is an umbrella organization established by the Reserve Bank of In-dia (RBI) and the Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007, to create a robust payment and settlement infrastructure in India.

Statement 1 is correct: National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) helps in promoting financial inclusion in the country by providing affordable and accessible digital payment solutions to all sections of society including rural and under-served areas. It supports initiatives like the Unified Payments Interface (UPI), Aadhaar Enabled Payment System (AEPS) and RuPay which enable seamless and low-cost digital transactions.

Statement 2 is correct: NPCI launched RuPay as India’s first domestic card payment network to reduce dependency on international card networks like Visa and Mastercard. RuPay is widely used in debit cards, credit cards and prepaid cards issued by Indian banks and it supports financial inclusion by offering low-cost payment solutions. The alliances with international network partners (Discover Financial Services, Japan Credit Bureau and China Union Pay) provide valuable access to a global acceptance footprint and offer world-class payment solutions to RuPay cardholders.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: OLEDs can be manufactured on flexible materials such as polyethylene terephthalate (PET), which allows the creation of foldable and bendable screens. Unlike LCDs, which require rigid glass substrates, OLEDs can use lightweight and flexible plastics, enabling the development of innovative designs like foldable smartphones and rollable displays.

Statement 2 is correct: The flexibility and thinness of OLEDs make them suitable for rollable screens that can be integrated into textiles or wearable devices. This innovation enables the creation of electronic clothing or fabrics with embedded displays, providing new possibilities in wearable technology.

Statement 3 is correct: OLED technology supports the development of transparent displays because it does not rely on a backlight. OLEDs produce light on their own, making it possible to create see-through screens that overlay digital content on real-world environments.

Explanation

The Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets (S4A) is a framework designed to address the issue of stressed assets in the corporate sector, particularly large accounts with significant debt facing genuine difficulties. It was introduced by the RBI in 2016 to tackle non-performing assets (NPAs) in Indian banks. The scheme aims to restructure the financial obligations of companies allowing them to continue operations while ensuring that lenders (banks and financial institutions) can recover their dues in a structured manner. Key Features of S4A:

The S4A scheme divides a company’s debt into sustainable (50%) and unsustainable portions based on cash flows. The sustainable part is serviced under existing terms, while the unsustainable portion can be converted into equity or quasi-equity instruments like optionally convertible debentures. To be eligible a company must be operational with lender exposure exceeding 500 crore. The debt must be sustainable, meaning the company can service the sustainable portion with its current cash flows. The Overseeing Committee (OC), formed by the IBA in consultation with the RBI, reviews and approves lenders’ resolution plans to ensure transparency and compliance. Options (a), (c) and (d) are incorrect:

S4A is not a related procedure for considering ecological costs of developmental schemes formulated by the Government. S4A is not a disinvestment plan. It is a debt resolution framework for private and public corporate entities, not specifically for Central Public Sector Undertakings (CPSUs) S4A is not part of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC). While both aim to resolve stressed assets, S4A is a separate RBI-led initiative that operates outside the IBC framework