97 previous year UPSC Prelims questions on the UPSC 2015 Prelims. Choose an option to see the answer and explanation.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 81–90 of 97 questions
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UPSC 2015Indian Economy · Public Finance
Q81. With reference to the Fourteenth Finance Commission, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It has increased the share of States in the central divisible pool from 32 percent to 42 percent. 2. It has made recommendations concerning sector-specific grants. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation
The Fourteen Finance Commission was constituted (FFC) by the President on January 2, 2013 under chairmanship of Dr. Y. V. Reddy to give recommendations on specified aspects of Centre-State fiscal relations during 2015-2020. The Commission submitted its report to the President on December 15, 2014.
Statement 1 is correct: The Fourteenth Finance Commission has radically enhanced the share of the states in the central divisible pool from the current 32% to 42% which is the biggest ever increase in vertical tax devolution.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Unlike the thirteenth Finance Com-mission, the Fourteenth Finance Commission did not make any recommendation concerning sector specific-grants.
Additional insight:
Recently, The Sixteenth Finance Commission of India was established under Article 280 of the Constitution to recommend the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States for the five-year period commencing April 1, 2026. Terms of Reference for the Sixteenth Finance Commission:
The 16th Finance Commission shall make recommendations as to the following matters, namely: i. The distribution between the Union and the States of the net proceeds of taxes which are to be, or may be, divided between them under Chapter I, Part XII of the Constitution and the allocation between the States of the respective shares of such proceeds; ii. The principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India and the sums to be paid to the States by way of grants-in-aid of their revenues under article 275 of the Constitution for the purposes other than those specified in the provisos to clause (1) of that article; and iii. The measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Panchayats and Municipalities in the State on the basis of the recommendations made by the Finance Commission of the State.
UPSC 2015Indian Economy · Public Finance
Q82. With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements: 1. The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of the Union Budget that is presented to the Parliament. 2. No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization from the Parliament of India. 3. All the disbursements made from Public Account also need the authorization from the Parliament of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The budget is prepared by the Department of Economic Affairs. The Budget Division under Department of Economic Affairs is responsible for the preparation and submission to Parliament of the Central Governments Budget other than Railways, as well as the supplementary Demands for Grants and Demands for Excess Grants. The Department of Revenue plays a key role in managing In-dia’s financial resources by overseeing tax collection and enforcing economic laws. It is responsible for collecting both direct taxes (such as income tax and wealth tax) and indirect taxes (like GST, customs duty, and excise duty). It does not prepare budget.
Statement 2 is correct: Consolidated Fund of India (Article 266) is a fund to which all receipts are credited and all payments are debited. No money out of this fund can be appropriated (issued or drawn) except in accordance with parliamentary law.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Provident fund deposits, savings bank deposits, remittances etc are credited to the Public Account. The Public Account is operated by the executive action i.e. payment from this account can be made without Parliamentary appropriation.
UPSC 2015Indian Economy · Public Finance
Q83. A decrease in tax to GDP ratio of a country indicates which of the following? 1. Slowing economic growth rate 2. Less equitable distribution of national income Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Explanation
A tax-to-GDP ratio is a gauge of a nation’s tax revenue relative to the size of its economy as measured by gross domestic product (GDP).
Statement 1 is correct: A decrease in the tax-to-GDP ratio may indicate that the government is collecting less tax revenue relative to the size of the economy. This can happen due to slowing economic growth, which reduces corporate profits, incomes, and consumption, leading to lower tax collections. However, this is not always the case, as tax policy changes (like tax cuts) can also reduce the ratio without reflecting economic slowdown.
Statement 2 is incorrect: A decrease in the tax-to-GDP ratio does not necessarily indicate less equitable distribution of na-tional income. While lower tax revenue relative to the size of the economy could result from tax cuts, evasion, or shifts toward in-direct taxes, these factors do not directly determine income in-equality. The impact on equity depends on the structure of the tax system and government policies--if the decline stems from broad-based tax cuts benefiting all income groups, it may not affect income distribution significantly. However, if it results from reduced taxation on the wealthy or increased reliance on regressive indirect taxes, it could exacerbate inequality. Thus, a falling tax-to-GDP ratio alone is not a definitive indicator of less equitable income distribution.
UPSC 2015Environment and Ecology · Miscellaneous
Q84. With reference to Forest Carbon Partnership Facility, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a global partnership of governments, businesses, civil society and indigenous peoples. 2. It provides financial aid to universities, individual scientists and institutions involved in scientific forestry research to develop eco-friendly and climate adaptation technologies for sustainable forest management. 3. It assists the countries in their ’REDD+ (Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation+)’ efforts by providing them with financial and technical assistance. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The Forest Carbon Partnership Facility (FCPF) is a global partnership that includes governments, businesses, civil society organizations, and indigenous peoples. It was established to support efforts to reduce emissions from deforestation and forest degradation (REDD+).
Statement 2 is incorrect: The FCPF does not provide financial aid to universities, individual scientists, or institutions for scientific forestry research. Instead, it focuses on providing financial and technical assistance to countries for REDD+ readiness and implementation. The FCPF supports REDD+ efforts through two separate but complementary funds-The FCPF Readiness Fund and The FCPF Carbon Fund.
Statement 3 is correct: The FCPF assists countries in their REDD+ efforts by providing financial and technical assistance. This includes helping countries prepare for REDD+ implementation, develop national strategies, and build capacity for monitoring, reporting, and verification (MRV) of forest carbon emissions.
UPSC 2015Environment and Ecology · Miscellaneous
Q85. BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes’ is managed by the:
Explanation
The BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes (ISFL) is managed by the World Bank. This initiative aims to reduce greenhouse gas emissions from deforestation and forest degradation in developing countries, promoting sustainable land-use practices. It seeks to promote reduced greenhouse gas emissions from the land sector, from deforestation and forest degradation in developing countries (REDD+), and from sustainable agriculture, as well as smarter land-use planning, policies and practices.
UPSC 2015Polity · State Legislature
Q86. Consider the following statements: 1. The Legislative Council of a State in India can be larger in size than half of the Legislative Assembly of that particular State. 2. The Governor of a State nominates the Chairman of the Legislative Council of that particular State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: As per Article 171, the maximum strength of the Legislative Council of the state cannot be more than one third of total strength of assembly. However, the size of the Legislative Council cannot be less than 40 members. The constitution has fixed the maximum and minimum limits but actual strength is fixed by Parliament.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The members of the Legislative Council are indirectly elected. The Chairman of the Legislative Council is elected by the members from amongst itself.
UPSC 2015Modern History · Prominent Personalities in Modern History
Q87. Consider the following statements: 1. The first woman President of the Indian National Congress was Sarojini Naidu. 2. The first Muslim President of the Indian National Congress was Badruddin Tyabji. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The first woman President of the Indian National Congress was Annie Besant in the 1917 Calcutta Session. Sarojini Naidu became the first Indian woman President of INC in 1925 Kanpur Session.
Statement 2 is correct: Badruddin Tyabji (1844-1906) was the first Muslim President of the Indian National Congress. He presided over the third session of the INC in 1887 (Madras Session). He was a progressive leader, reformist, and the first Indian to practice law in the Bombay High Court.
UPSC 2015Polity · Local Government: Panchayats and Municipalities
Q88. The fundamental object of the Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the following? 1. People’s participation in development 2. Political accountability 3. Democratic decentralisation 4. Financial mobilisation Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation
Statements 1 and 3 are correct: The main idea behind the Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) is to promote grass root democracy and development. The main aim is to evolve a system of democratic decentralisation and people’s participation with a view to ensure rapid socio-economic progress and provide adequate justice.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Political accountability can be achieved in any system with democratic rule and thus not the fundamental objective of PRIs.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Financial mobilisation was never the fundamental basis for the establishment of PRI.
UPSC 2015Indian Economy · External Sector of India
Q89. The terms ‘Agreement on Agriculture’, ‘Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures’ and ‘Peace Clause’ appear in the news frequently in the context of the affairs of the:
Explanation
The mentioned agreements and terms are related to global trade regulations under the World Trade Organization (WTO):
Agreement on Agriculture (AoA) is a WTO agreement that sets international rules for agricultural trade, subsidies, and market access. It aims to reduce trade barriers and promote fair competition in agriculture. Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary (SPS) Measures: It establishes rules for food safety and animal and plant health standards in global trade. It ensures that countries do not use health measures as a disguised trade barrier. Peace Clause: It was introduced under the WTO’s Agreement on Agriculture. It temporarily protected agricultural subsidies from legal challenges under WTO rules. It was a major issue in India’s food security concerns at WTO negotiations.
UPSC 2015Indian Economy · External Sector of India
Q90. With reference to Indian economy, consider the following statements: 1. The rate of growth of Real Gross Domestic Product has steadily increased in the last decade. 2. The Gross Domestic Product at market prices (in rupees) has steadily increased in the last decade. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The rate of growth of Real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) in India has not steadily increased over the last decade (2005-2015). Instead, it has experienced fluctuations due to various factors such as global economic conditions, domestic policy changes, and structural reforms. For example: India experienced high GDP growth rates during the mid-2000s (around 9% in 2007-2008). The growth rate declined significantly during the global financial crisis of 2008-2009. Post-2010, growth rates recovered but remained volatile, with a slowdown in recent years due to factors like demonetization (2016) and the introduction of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in 2017.
Statement 2 is correct: Gross domestic product at market prices is the sum of added values of all activities which produce goods and services, plus taxes and minus subsidies on products. When measured in nominal terms (i.e., at current market prices without adjusting for inflation), India’s GDP in rupees has shown a consistent upward trend over the past decade. This steady increase reflects the overall expansion of the economy in nominal terms.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
81
2015
(a) 1 only
82
2015
(c) 2 only
83
2015
(a) 1 only
84
2015
(c) 1 and 3 only
85
2015
(d) World Bank
86
2015
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
87
2015
(b) 2 only
88
2015
(c) 1 and 3 only
89
2015
(c) World Trade Organization
90
2015
(b) 2 only
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on all subjects?
This page covers 97 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on the UPSC 2015 Prelims, asked from 1995 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
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Attempt each question first, then open the answer and read the explanation for every option. Repeat by chapter, and track which statements UPSC reuses across years. Previous year questions show the exam pattern and difficulty level.
Which years are covered for all subjects?
Questions on the UPSC 2015 Prelims are available for 31 years, from 1995 to 2025. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.