This page lists 113 previous year UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination (General Studies Paper-I) questions on the UPSC 2001 Prelims. Choose an option to see the correct answer and the full explanation on the same page.
Explanations state facts as they stood in the year each question was asked, so words like “recently” or “currently” refer to that year, not today. For the present position, check the latest Current Affairs.
Showing 41–50 of 113 questions
UPSC 2001General Knowledge · Contemporary Events: World
Q41. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Country)
List-II (President)
A. Columbia
1. Vicente Fox
B. Philippines
2. Hugo Chavez
C. Mexico
3. Gloria Macapagal Arroya
D. Venezuela
4. Andres Pastrana
Explanation
A-4: Andres Pastrana was the President of Colombia (1998-2002), known for his efforts to negotiate peace with guerrilla groups. B-3: Gloria Macapagal Arroyo became the President of the Philippines in 2001, succeeding Joseph Estrada. C-1: Vicente Fox was elected President of Mexico in 2000, representing the National Action Party (PAN). D-2: Hugo Chavez was the President of Venezuela (1999-2013) and was known for his socialist policies and opposition to U.S. influence.
UPSC 2001Polity · Parliament
Q42. In what way does the Indian Parliament exercise control over the administration?
Explanation
Option (a) is correct: Indian Parliament exercises control over the administration primarily through Parliamentary Committees, which scrutinize the functioning of the executive and ensure accountability. The Parliament has Standing committees and Ad hoc committees that scrutinize bills, review the performance of Ministries, conduct enquiry and make recommendations.
Option (b) is incorrect: Consultative Committees, attached to various ministries, comprise MPs from both Houses and serve an advisory role by discussing policies and providing inputs. However, they lack binding powers or direct parliamentary oversight.
Option (c) is incorrect: Periodic reports sent by administrators are internal to the executive and do not involve direct parliamentary oversight. They are not a tool for Parliament to control administration.
Option (d) is incorrect: Writs play a critical role in maintaining accountability, they fall under the purview of the judiciary, not the legislature. Therefore, writs are not a mechanism for Parliament to exercise control over the administration.
UPSC 2001Indian Economy · Banking Sector in India
Q43. Consider the following statements regarding Reserve Bank of India: 1. It is a banker to the Central Government 2. It formulates and administers monetary policy 3. It acts as an agent of the Government in respect of India’s membership of IMF 4. It handles the borrowing programme of Government Which of these statements are correct?
Explanation
The Reserve Bank of India established in 1935 is a central bank carries out several functions such as:
The RBI acts as the banker to the central government, managing its banking transactions, including the receipt and payment of money, and facilitating the government’s borrowing program. It also manages the government’s public debt and issues government securities. The RBI is responsible for formulating, implementing, and monitoring India’s monetary policy. The aim is to maintain price stability while considering the objective of economic growth. The RBI represents the Government of India in dealings with the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and manages transactions and communications between the IMF and the country. The RBI manages the government’s borrowing program which includes the issuance and redemption of government securities, to raise funds for various public expenditures.
UPSC 2001Indian Economy · Taxation
Q44. Consider the following taxes: 1. Corporation tax 2. Customs duty 3. Wealth tax 4.Excise duty Which of these is/are indirect taxes?
Explanation
An indirect tax is a tax imposed on the consumption of goods and services, rather than directly on an individual’s income. The tax is paid by the consumer as part of the price of the goods or services purchased from the seller. In case of Indirect taxes, the individual who pays the tax to the government is different from the person who ultimately bears the burden of the tax. Customs duty and excise duty are classified as indirect taxes because their burden is ultimately passed on to consumers through the pricing of goods and services. Customs duty is levied on the import and export of goods and indirectly borne by the consumers. Excise duty is a tax on the manufacture of goods, indirectly passed on to consumers. According to the Economic Survey 2000-01, indirect taxes like excise and customs duties formed a significant part of India’s revenue during this period. Corporation tax is a direct tax imposed on a company’s profits. Wealth tax is a direct tax on an individual’s or entity’s net wealth, it was abolished in 2015.
UPSC 2001Modern History · Economic Policies of the British
Q45. Under the Permanent Settlement, 1793, the Zamindars are required to issue pattas to the farmers which were not issued by many of the Zamindars. The reason was:
Explanation
The Permanent Settlement of 1793, introduced by Lord Cornwallis. It fixed land revenue that zamindars had to pay to the British government permanently. While it aimed to create a loyal class of landlords, it led to peasant exploitation and failure to issue pattas (land agreements) to farmers due to a lack of effective oversight. The zamindars often did not issue pattas because there was no effective supervision or enforcement by the British government, leaving farmers vulnerable to exploitation.
UPSC 2001Science and Technology · Physics: Mechanics
Q46. Consider the following statements: A simple pendulum is set into oscillation. Then: 1. The acceleration is zero when the bob passes through the mean position. 2. In each cycle the bob attains a given velocity twice. 3. Both acceleration and velocity of the bob are zero when it reaches its extreme position during the oscillation. 4. The amplitude of oscillation of the simple pendulum decreases with time. Which of these statements are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: At the mean position, the pendulum has maximum velocity and is moving in a straight line for an instant with no force along its path and hence producing zero acceleration.
Statement 2 is correct: In one complete oscillation, the bob passes through the mean position twice - once moving in each direction, hence attaining the maximum velocity twice in a complete oscillation.
Statement 3 is incorrect: At the extreme position, the bob has zero velocity as it stops for an instant before reversing the direction. However, at this point the acceleration is maximum because bob completely comes under the force of gravity and hence produces maximum acceleration.
Statement 4 is correct: In an ideal situation, due to air resistance and internal friction, the amplitude of oscillation decreases with time.
UPSC 2001Science and Technology · Physics: Mechanics
Q47. Which of the following distance-time graph (x-t) represents one-dimensional uniform motion?
Explanation
The motion of an object traveling in a straight line can be represented on a distance-time graph, with the shape of the graph depending on whether the motion is uniform (straight line) or non-uniform (curved line). Uniform motion represents a constant change in displacement per second. The distance time graph for uniform motion is a straight line, that is, equal distance is covered by the equal units of time.
Option (d) represents the graph where change in displacement per second is constant. Therefore, velocity is constant and hence it performs uniform motion.
UPSC 2001Polity · Higher Judiciary: Supreme Court and High Courts
Q48. The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President on a matter of law or fact:
Explanation
Under article 143 of the Indian Constitution, the President can seek the Supreme Court’s opinion on public importance matters. However, this advice is provided only if the President asks for it; the Supreme Court does not offer advice on its own initiative. This process is known as the Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under Article 143.
UPSC 2001Polity · Higher Judiciary: Supreme Court and High Courts
Q49. Consider the following statements regarding the High Courts in India: 1. There are eighteen High Courts in the country. 2. Three of them have jurisdiction over more than one state. 3. No Union Territory has a High Court of its own. 4. Judges of the High Court hold office till the age of 62. Which of these statements is/are correct?
Explanation
Article 214-231 deals with the provisions of High Courts in India. Article 214 provides for a HC in each state while article 231 enables a HC to be shared with multiple states.
Statement 1 is incorrect: After the establishment of the Andhra Pradesh High Court in 2019, there were 25 High Courts in India.
Statement 2 is correct: Three high courts (Guwahati, Bombay and Punjab & Haryana High Courts) have jurisdiction over more than one state.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Delhi is the only UT having its own HC.
Statement 4 is correct: Judges of the High Court hold office till the age of 62. However the judges of supreme court hold office till the age of 65. Note: In this question though 2 statements are correct, but "d" is the most appropriate option.
UPSC 2001Indian Economy · Public Finance
Q50. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Term)
List-II (Explanation)
A. Fiscal deficit
1. Excess of Total Expenditure over Total Receipts
B. Budget deficit
2. Excess of Revenue Expenditure over revenue receipts
C. Revenue deficit
3. Excess of Total Expenditure over Total Receipts less borrowings
D. Primary deficit
4. Excess of Total Expenditure over Total Receipts less Payments borrowings and Interest
Explanation
A is correctly matched with 3: The fiscal deficit is the excess of total expenditure over total receipts, excluding borrowings. It measures the overall borrowing requirement of the government. B is correctly matched with 1: The budget deficit is the difference between total expenditure and total receipts, including borrowings. It is no longer used as a measure in India’s budgets. C is correctly matched with 4: The revenue deficit is the excess of revenue expenditure over revenue receipts, indicating a shortfall in current income. D is correctly matched with 2: The primary deficit is the fiscal deficit minus interest payments, reflecting the government’s borrowing requirement, excluding interest obligations.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
41
2001
(c) A-4; B-3; C-1; D-2
42
2001
(a) Through Parliamentary Committees
43
2001
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
44
2001
(b) 2 and 4
45
2001
(b) there was no official check upon the Zamindars.
46
2001
(c) 1, 2 and 4
47
2001
(d) x t
48
2001
(b) only if he seeks such advice
49
2001
(d) 4 only
50
2001
(d) A-3; B-1; C-4; D-2
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on all subjects?
This page covers 113 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on the UPSC 2001 Prelims, asked between 1995 to 2024. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
How should I use previous year UPSC questions for Prelims?
Attempt each question first, then open the answer and read the explanation for every option. Repeat by chapter, and track which statements UPSC reuses across years. Previous year questions show the exam pattern and difficulty level.
Which years are covered for all subjects?
Questions on the UPSC 2001 Prelims are available for 30 years, from 1995 to 2024. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.