113 previous year UPSC Prelims questions on the UPSC 2001 Prelims. Choose an option to see the answer and explanation.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 101–110 of 113 questions
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UPSC 2001Science and Technology · Biology: Zoology
Q101. "Metastasis" is the process by which:
Explanation
Metastasis is the process through which cancer cells spread from the primary tumor to distant parts of the body, forming secondary tumors in organs such as the lungs, liver, bones, or brain. This process is responsible for nearly 90% of cancer-related deaths, showcasing the aggressive and life-threatening nature of malignant tumors. The process begins with Epithelial-to-Mesenchymal Transition (EMT), where cancer cells gain the ability to migrate and invade surrounding tissues. These cells then enter the bloodstream or lymphatic system (intravasation) and travel to other parts of the body. While in circulation, they evade immune system attacks and other hostile conditions. Upon reaching a new site, the cells exit blood vessels (extravasation) and adapt to the local environment to form secondary tumors. Interestingly, some metastatic cells can remain dormant for years before becoming active again, contributing to cancer recurrence.
UPSC 2001Science and Technology · Biology: Zoology
Q102. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I (Substance)
List-II (Physiological role)
A. Ptyalin
1. Converts angiotensinogen in blood into angiotensin
B. Pepsin
2. Digests starch
C. Renin
3. Digests proteins
D. Oxytocin
4. Hydrolyses fats
5. Induces contraction of smooth muscles
Explanation
Enzymes are biological catalysts, crucial for various biological processes, including digestion, metabolism, and DNA replication. Hormones are chemical messengers produced by endocrine glands which regulate various physiological processes, such as growth, development, metabolism, reproduction, and mood. A is matched with 2: Ptyalin, also known as salivary amylase, is an enzyme present in saliva that breaks down starch into maltose and smaller polysaccharides during digestion. B is matched with 3: Pepsin is a proteolytic enzyme secreted in the stomach. It helps digest proteins into smaller peptides by breaking peptide bonds in acidic conditions. C is matched with 1: Renin is an enzyme secreted by the kidneys in response to low blood pressure. It converts angiotensinogen (produced by the liver) into angiotensin I, which is further converted to angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor. D is matched with 5: Oxytocin is a hormone produced by the hypothalamus and secreted by the pituitary gland. It induces the contraction of smooth muscles, particularly in the uterus during childbirth and in milk ejection during breastfeeding.
UPSC 2001Science and Technology · Biology: Zoology
Q103. Antigen is a substance which:
Explanation
Antigens are recognized by the immune system as foreign substances, which stimulates the production of specific antibodies by B-cells (a type of white blood cell). Antibodies bind to antigens, marking them for destruction by other immune cells or neutralizing their harmful effects. Antigens can be proteins, polysaccharides, or lipids. For example, the spike protein of the SARS-CoV-2 virus acts as an antigen, triggering an immune response and the production of antibodies in infected individuals or after vaccination. The immune response involves two types of lymphocytes:
1. B-cells produce antibodies that target antigens.
UPSC 2001Science and Technology · Biology: Zoology
Q104. Which organelle in the cell, other than nucleus, contains DNA?
Explanation
Option (d) is correct: Chloroplasts and mitochondria are unique organelles as they contain their own circular DNA, similar to bacterial chromosomes, along with ribosomes and protein synthesis machinery. Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA), present in all eukaryotic cells, is maternally inherited and essential for ATP production. Chloroplast DNA (cpDNA) is found in photosynthetic eukaryotes. It encodes proteins for photosynthesis. Their extranuclear DNA supports the endosymbiotic theory which suggests that these organelles evolved from free-living bacteria engulfed by ancestral eukaryotes. Despite their partial independence, mitochondria and chloroplasts still rely on nuclear-encoded proteins for various functions, distinguishing them from other organelles that depend entirely on nuclear DNA. Options (a), (b) and (c) are incorrect:
Centrioles are involved in cell division and the formation of spindle fibers but do not contain DNA. They play a structural role and have no genetic material. The Golgi apparatus modifies, packages, and transports proteins but does not contain DNA or protein synthesis machinery, depending entirely on the cell’s nucleus. Lysosomes are enzyme-filled organelles responsible for digesting cellular waste but lack DNA. They function solely under the control of nuclear-encoded proteins.
UPSC 2001Science and Technology · Biology: Zoology
Q105. Which of the following cell organelles play the most significant role in protein synthesis?
Explanation
The combination of ribosomes and the endoplasmic reticulum plays a pivotal role in protein synthesis. Ribosomes are the molecular machines responsible for translating messenger RNA (mRNA) into polypeptide chains, which then fold into functional proteins. They can be found floating freely in the cytoplasm or attached to the endoplasmic reticulum. The ER is a network of membranous tubules within the cell. The rough ER (RER) is studded with ribosomes on its cytoplasmic surface, making it the site of protein synthesis for proteins destined for secretion or for use in the cell membrane. After synthesis, these proteins are folded and undergo post-translational modifications within the RER.
UPSC 2001Science and Technology · Biology: Zoology
Q106. The cellular and molecular control of programmed cell death is known as
Explanation
Cell death is a fundamental biological process crucial for maintaining cellular homeostasis, development, and defense mechanisms in multicellular organisms. There are two primary types of cell death: papoptosis and necrosis.
Option (a) is correct: The cellular and molecular control of programmed cell death is called apoptosis, a regulated process triggered by physiological or pathological signals. It ensures the removal of damaged or harmful cells without harming the organism. Key processes include cell shrinkage, DNA fragmentation, and the formation of apoptotic bodies, which are engulfed by nearby cells or macrophages.
UPSC 2001Geography · Places and Locations: World Geography
Q107. If the stars are seen to rise perpendicular to the horizon by an observer, he is located on the:
Explanation
If an observer sees the stars rising perpendicular to the horizon, they are positioned at the equator. At the Earth’s equator, stars appear to rise straight up from the eastern horizon, move directly overhead, and set in the west. This occurs because the Earth’s rotational axis is perpendicular to the observer’s horizon at this location. The celestial equator, which is an imaginary extension of Earth’s equator into space, perfectly aligns with the observer’s horizon. As a result, stars follow a vertical trajectory as they rise and set. In contrast, at other latitudes, such as the Tropic of Cancer, the North Pole, or the South Pole, stars rise and set at different angles due to the observer’s varying position on the globe and the tilt of the Earth.
UPSC 2001Science and Technology · Biology: Zoology
Q108. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below
List-I (Bone)
List-II (Name)
A. Breastbone
1. Clavicle
B. Collarbone
2. Patella
C. Kneecap
3. Scapula
D. Shoulder blade
4. Sternum
Explanation
Human bones are rigid organs that form the skeleton. They provide structure, support, protection for internal organs, and enable movement. Bones are also classified based on their development and function as either axial (skull, spine, ribs, and sternum) or appendicular (limbs and girdles).The human skeleton consists of approximately 206 bones. A is matched with 4: The sternum, commonly known as the breastbone is a flat bone situated at the center of the thoracic cage, connects to the ribs via costal cartilage. It plays a vital role in protecting the heart and lungs while serving as a structural anchor for the ribcage. B is matched with 1: The clavicle, or collarbone is an S-shaped bone which stabilizes the shoulder girdle and assists in transmitting mechanical forces from the upper limb to the axial skeleton. C is matched with 2: The patella, known as the kneecap is a sesamoid bone embedded within the tendon of the quadriceps muscle, protecting the knee joint. D is matched with 3: The scapula, or shoulder blade is a flat, triangular bone located on the posterior aspect of the ribcage, playing a key role in shoulder movement and provides attachment sites for numerous muscles involved in upper limb motion.
UPSC 2001Geography · Places and Locations: World Geography
Q109. A class of animals known as "Marsupials" is a characteristic feature of:
Explanation
Option (b) is correct: Australia is home to a wide variety of marsupials, including kangaroos, koalas, wombats, and tasmanian devils. About 70% of all marsupial species are found in Australia. Options (a), (c) and (d) are incorrect:
South America does have a few marsupials, such as the opossum, but the diversity and number of marsupial species are far greater in Australia. Africa, and South East Asia do not have significant populations of marsupials. Marsupials are rare or absent in these regions.
UPSC 2001Science and Technology · Biology: Zoology
Q110. Consider the following statements 1. Tapeworm is a hermaphrodite. 2. Roundworm has separate sexes. 3. Filaria is caused by a nematode. 4. Guinea-worm is an annelid. Which of these are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Tapeworms, belonging to the class Cestoda are fascinating parasites with a unique reproductive strategy. Each segment of their body, called a proglottid, contains both male and female reproductive organs, making them hermaphroditic. This adaptation allows tapeworms to self-fertilize or cross-fertilize, ensuring reproductive success even in limited host environments. Their reproductive efficiency is one reason they thrive as internal parasites.
Statement 2 is correct: Roundworms, or nematodes (phylum Nematoda), exhibit sexual dimorphism, meaning individuals are either male or female. Males are typically smaller and possess specialized structures like spicules for mating. This separation of sexes enhances genetic diversity, a critical factor for survival in diverse environments. Nematodes are one of the most abundant and diverse groups of animals on Earth, found in almost every ecosystem.
Statement 3 is correct: Filariasis is caused by parasitic nematodes like Wuchereria bancrofti and Brugia malayi, which are transmitted to humans via mosquito vectors. These tiny worms reside in the lymphatic system, causing lymphatic filariasis (commonly called elephantiasis). This disease exemplifies the intricate relationship between hosts, parasites, and vectors. Nematodes like these highlight the importance of vector control in managing parasitic diseases.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The Guinea worm (Dracunculus medinensis) is not an annelid (segmented worm) but a nematode. This parasitic roundworm causes dracunculiasis, a disease associated with painful blister formation as the adult worm emerges from the skin. Nematodes are unsegmented and possess a simple body structure adapted for parasitism. This parasite’s lifecycle is intricately linked to water sources, making safe drinking water a key preventive measure.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
101
2001
(b) cancer cells spread through the blood or lymphatic system to other sites or organs
102
2001
(a) A - 2; B - 3; C - 1; D - 5
103
2001
(d) stimulates formation of antibody
104
2001
(d) Mitochondrion
105
2001
(b) Endoplasmic reticulum and Ribosome
106
2001
(a) Apoptosis
107
2001
(a) Equator
108
2001
(d) A - 4; B - 1; C - 2; D - 3
109
2001
(b) Australia
110
2001
(b) 1, 2 and 3
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on all subjects?
This page covers 113 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on the UPSC 2001 Prelims, asked from 1995 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
How should I use previous year UPSC questions for Prelims?
Attempt each question first, then open the answer and read the explanation for every option. Repeat by chapter, and track which statements UPSC reuses across years. Previous year questions show the exam pattern and difficulty level.
Which years are covered for all subjects?
Questions on the UPSC 2001 Prelims are available for 31 years, from 1995 to 2025. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.