114 previous year UPSC Prelims questions on the UPSC 1996 Prelims. Choose an option to see the answer and explanation.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 51–60 of 114 questions
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UPSC 1996Geography · Human and Economic Geography
Q51. As per the 1991 Census, which one of the following states has a lower population density than the other three?
Explanation
Population density is measured as the number of people per square kilometer, is a key demographic indicator. It reflects the distribution of population across regions and is influenced by geographical, economic, and social factors.
Option (a) is correct: The following table presents the approximate population densities (in persons per square kilometer) for the four states across three Census years:
State Census 1991 Census 2001 Census 2011 Sikkim 57 76 86 Nagaland 73 119 120 Meghalaya 79 115 132 Manipur 82 98 122 In 1991, Sikkim had a population density of 57 persons/km², which was lower than Nagaland (73), Meghalaya (79), and Manipur (82). Its mountainous terrain and limited habitable land contribute to sparse population distribution. In contrast, Nagaland, Meghalaya, and Manipur had higher densities due to more favorable living conditions and agricultural practices.
UPSC 1996Geography · Human and Economic Geography
Q52. Which of the following pairs of states and their important crops are correctly matched? 1. Kerala-Tapioca 2. Maharashtra-Cotton 3. West Bengal-Jute 4. Gujarat-Groundnut
Explanation
India has diverse agro-climatic zones, enabling different regions to specialize in certain crops based on soil type, rainfall, and climate.
Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: Tapioca (cassava) is widely grown in Kerala, particularly in hilly and rainfed areas, but it is not considered a major or economically significant crop of the state compared to others.
Pair 2 is correctly matched: Maharashtra is a leading producer of cotton in India, particularly in Vidarbha and Marathwada regions, owing to its black soil. Maharashtra is followed by Gujarat and Telangana in cotton production.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: West Bengal is the largest producer of jute in India, contributing around 75% of the nation’s total yield. The benefits from the alluvial soils of the Ganga-Brahmaputra delta and experienced agricultural workforce. Known for its durability and versatility, jute plays a crucial role in various industries, including textiles and packaging.
Pair 4 is correctly matched: Gujarat leads in groundnut production, especially in Saurashtra and Kutch regions, due to suitable sandy loam soils and semi-arid conditions. Alongwith suitable soil type and favourable climatic conditions, application of advance farming techniques helps Gujarat produce the largest share of country’s groundnut yield.
UPSC 1996General Knowledge · Contemporary Events: World
Q53. In the 1996, Cricket World Cup, the non-test playing countries which participated included:
Explanation
The 1996 Cricket World Cup was co-hosted by India, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka. The tournament featured 12 teams, including three non-Test playing nations, which were:
1. United Arab Emirates (UAE)
2. Kenya
3. Netherlands (Holland)
UPSC 1996Geography · Agriculture
Q54. Which one of the following sets of conditions is necessary for a good crop of wheat?
Explanation
Wheat is mainly grown during Rabi season and has wide adaptability. It can be grown not only in the tropical and sub-tropical zones, but also in the temperate zone and the cold tracts of the far north, beyond even to the 60 degrees North altitude.
Option (a) is correct: Wheat grows best in a moderate temperature range of 10°C-25°C. For a good crop of wheat, the following conditions are ideal:
Temperature: Wheat grows best in a moderate temperature range of 10°C-25°C. Temperatures above 25 C during this period tend to depress grain weight. Moderate rainfall of 50-75 cm is sufficient, as excessive rainfall can damage the crop. Cloudy weather, with high humidity and low temperatures is conducive for rust attack Wheat requires a cool climate during the growing period and a warm, dry climate during harvesting to ensure proper grain development.
UPSC 1996Geography · Agriculture
Q55. Which one of the following is an important crop of the Barak valley?
Explanation
The Barak Valley is located in the southern part of Assam, India, comprising the districts of Cachar, Karimganj, and Hailakandi. This region is characterized by a warm and humid climate, with temperatures ranging from 25°C to 30°C and annual rainfall between 100 to 200 cm. These conditions are ideal for the cultivation of jute, making it a significant crop in the Barak Valley.
Option (a) is correct: Jute is grown here as a cash crop and contributes significantly to the region’s agricultural economy. Jute flourishes in regions with high humidity, temperatures exceeding 25°C, and well-drained loamy soil. The Barak Valley is enriched by the Barak River which provides these ideal conditions making it highly suitable for jute cultivation. Options (b), (c) and (d) are incorrect:
While tea is a significant crop in Assam, tea cultivation is more prominent in the Brahmaputra Valley rather than the Barak Valley. Sugarcane is cultivated in various parts of India, including Assam but it is not a major crop of the Barak Valley. The major sugarcane producing states in India are Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Bihar, Haryana, Punjab, and Odisha with Uttar Pradesh being the largest producer of sugarcane in the country. Cotton is not a significant crop in the Barak Valley due to the region’s unsuitable climatic and soil conditions. States of India known for cotton production include Gujarat, Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, and Madhya Pradesh.
UPSC 1996General Knowledge · Contemporary Events: World
Q56. Which one of the following countries had more or less evolved into a two-party system?
Explanation
Sri Lanka has historically evolved into a two-party system, dominated by the United National Party (UNP) and Sri Lanka Freedom Party (SLFP). Although smaller parties exist, these two have been the main contenders for power, forming governments alternately.
UPSC 1996Indian Economy · Taxation
Q57. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): An important policy instrument of economic liberalization is reduction in import duties on capital goods. Reason (R): Reduction in import duties would help the local entrepreneurs to improve technology to face the global markets. In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
Explanation
Assertion A is true: Economic liberalization in India, initiated in 1991, focused on reducing import duties on capital goods as a key policy instrument to make the economy globally competitive. Reason R is true: This reduction in import duties facilitated access to advanced technology, machinery, and equipment at lower costs, enabling Indian entrepreneurs to modernize industries and compete in global markets. The Reason (R)explains the Assertion (A) correctly, as lower import duties encouraged the adoption of cutting-edge technologies and fostered export competitiveness in sectors like manufacturing and IT.
UPSC 1996Indian Economy · Taxation
Q58. A redistribution of income in a country can be best brought about through:
Explanation
Redistribution of income is best achieved through progressive taxation, where higher-income groups are taxed at a higher rate, and progressive expenditure, where government spending is directed toward social welfare programs, such as education, healthcare, and poverty alleviation. This ensures equitable resource distribution and addresses income inequality. Examples include India’s National Food Security Act and subsidies for essential services like health and education funded by a progressive tax structure. This combination promotes social equity and economic stability. Options (b), (c), and (d) are incorrect:
Regressive expenditure would widen income inequality by favoring higher-income groups. Regressive systems, in both taxation and expenditure, would exacerbate inequality. Regressive taxation would disproportionately burden the poor, even if expenditures are progressive.
UPSC 1996Modern History · Economic Policies of the British
Q59. Who among the following leaders did not believe in the drain theory of Dadabhai Naoroji?
Explanation
The Drain Theory was propounded by Dadabhai Naoroji arguing that the British colonial rule in India resulted in the economic drain of wealth from India to Britain. Naoroji contested that a significant portion of India’s resources, including revenue and raw materials, were being transferred to Britain without equivalent returns. Sir Syed Ahmed Khan had a moderate approach and believed that British Rule could benefit India particularly in terms of education and infrastructure. He advocated for cooperation with the British and emphasized the need for Indian Muslims to adopt Western education and progress within the colonial framework. Supporters of the Drain Theory were Dadabhai Naoroji, R.C. Dutt, M.G. Ranade etc.
UPSC 1996Polity · Higher Judiciary: Supreme Court and High Courts
Q60. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the State falls under its:
Explanation
Option (c) is correct: Article 131 of the Constitution of India confers original and exclusive jurisdiction on the Supreme court of India which covers adjudication of the disputes between - (a) the Centre and one or more states; or (b) the Centre and any state or states on one side and one or more states on the other; or (c) Between two or more states. Options (a), (b) and (d) are incorrect:
The Supreme Court hears appeals against decisions of High Courts and other lower courts under the Appellate Jurisdiction (Article 132 to Article 136). The President of India can seek the Supreme Court’s opinion on constitutional or legal matters under the Advisory Jurisdiction (Article 143). Constitutional Jurisdiction refers to the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in cases related to the interpretation and enforcement of the Constitution, especially in matters involving constitutional validity.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
51
1996
(a) Sikkim
52
1996
(d) 2, 3 and 4
53
1996
(c) UAE, Kenya and Holland
54
1996
(a) Moderate temperature and moderate rainfall
55
1996
(a) Jute
56
1996
(a) Sri Lanka
57
1996
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
58
1996
(a) progressive taxation combined with progressive expenditure
59
1996
(d) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
60
1996
(c) original jurisdiction
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on all subjects?
This page covers 114 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on the UPSC 1996 Prelims, asked from 1995 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
How should I use previous year UPSC questions for Prelims?
Attempt each question first, then open the answer and read the explanation for every option. Repeat by chapter, and track which statements UPSC reuses across years. Previous year questions show the exam pattern and difficulty level.
Which years are covered for all subjects?
Questions on the UPSC 1996 Prelims are available for 31 years, from 1995 to 2025. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.