International Relations and Current Affairs: UPSC Previous Year Questions (Prelims)
182 previous year UPSC Prelims International Relations and Current Affairs questions are on this page, from 2011 to 2025, in 3 chapters. International Relations is the largest, covering groupings, treaties, reports and countries in the news. Current Affairs and Miscellaneous add national schemes, awards, sports and institutions. The set is recent, so the explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 21–30 of 182 questions
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UPSC 2024International Relations and Current Affairs · Current Affairs
Q21. What are the duties of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) as Head of the Department of Military Affairs? 1. Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of Staff Committee 2. Exercise military command over the three Service Chiefs 3. Principal Military Advisor to Defence Minister on all tri-service matters Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The CDS serves as the Permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee (CoSC), ensuring coordination and integration among the Army, Navy, and Air Force. This role is a key responsibility of the CDS.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The CDS does not have direct military command over the three service chiefs (Chief of Army Staff, Chief of Naval Staff, and Chief of Air Staff). Each Service Chief retains operational command over their respective force. Instead, the CDS acts as a coordinator and advisor to ensure jointness and integration across the services.
Statement 3 is correct: The CDS acts as the principal military advisor to the Defence Minister, specifically on tri-service (joint military) matters, while individual Service Chiefs advise on service-specific issues. This is one of the primary roles of the CDS.
UPSC 2024International Relations and Current Affairs · Current Affairs
Q22. Operations undertaken by the Army towards upliftment of the local population in remote areas to include addressing of their basic needs is called:
Explanation
In 1998, the Northern Command of the Indian Army launched Operation Sadbhavana to address the challenges posed by terrorism and assist in rebuilding the socioeconomic fabric of Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh. The Army acts as a facilitator for development projects, identified collaboratively with the state administration and local communities, focusing on village-level initiatives. This operation aims to uplift remote populations by improving infrastructure, education, healthcare, and community development. Through these efforts, Operation Sadbhavana seeks to foster goodwill, empower local communities, and promote their integration into the national mainstream.
UPSC 2024International Relations and Current Affairs · Current Affairs
Q23. Which of the following is/are correctly matched in terms of equivalent rank in the three services of Indian Defence forces? Army Airforce Navy 1. Brigadier Air Commodore Commander 2. Major General Air Vice Marshal Vice Admiral 3. Major Squadron Leader Lieutenant Commander 4. Lieutenant Colonel Group Captain Captain Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
Correctly matched equivalent rank in the three services of Indian Defence force are given below:
Army Airforce Navy
1. Brigadier Air Commodore Commodore
2. Major General Air Vice Marshal Rear Admiral
3. Major Squadron Leader Lieutenant Commander
4. Lieutenant Colonel Commander Wing Commander
UPSC 2024International Relations and Current Affairs · Current Affairs
Q24. Who of the following is the author of the books "The India Way" and "Why Bharat Matters"?
Explanation
Subrahmanyam Jaishankar, India’s External Affairs Minister, is the author of the books "The India Way: Strategies for an Uncertain World" and "Why Bharat Matters". "The India Way" (2020) explores India’s foreign policy in a rapidly changing global order, emphasizing strategic autonomy and diplomacy. "Why Bharat Matters" (2024) discusses India’s evolving global role, economic progress, and strategic challenges.
UPSC 2024International Relations and Current Affairs · Current Affairs
Q25. Which one of the following was the latest inclusion in the Intangible Cultural Heritage List of UNESCO?
Explanation
Garba is a traditional folk dance from Gujarat, per-formed during Navratri to honor Goddess Durga. It is characterized by graceful circular movements, rhythmic claps, and vibrant attire, often accompanied by live music and devotional songs. The dance symbolizes the cyclical nature of life and devotion to the divine. In December 2023, UNESCO inscribed Garba on its Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity, recognizing its cultural, spiritual, and artistic significance. Options (a), (b) and (d) are incorrect:
Chhau Dance is a semi-classical Indian dance form that blends elements of martial arts, folk traditions, and storytelling. It is primarily performed in the eastern states of India--Jharkhand, Odisha, and West Bengal--and is often associated with religious themes, mythological narratives, and heroic tales. UNESCO inscribed Chhau Dance in 2010 on its Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity. Durga Puja is a grand Hindu festival, primarily celebrated in West Bengal and eastern India, honoring Goddess Durga’s victory over Mahishasura. It is marked by elaborate rituals, artistic pandals, cultural performances, and community feasts. In 2021, UNESCO recognized Durga Puja as an Intangible Cultural Heritage, highlighting its artistic and cultural significance. The festival blends devotion, creativity, and social harmony, attracting millions of devotees and tourists each year. Kumbh Mela is one of the largest religious gatherings in the world, held at four sacred riverbanks in Haridwar, Prayagraj (Allahabad), Nashik, and Ujjain in India. It is celebrated in a 12-year cycle, with the Purna Kumbh occurring every 12 years and the Ardh Kumbh every 6 years. Devotees gather to take a holy dip in the sacred rivers, believing it cleanses them of sins and grants salvation. In 2017, UNESCO inscribed Kumbh Mela on its Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity, recognizing its deep spiritual and cultural significance.
UPSC 2024International Relations and Current Affairs · Current Affairs
Q26. With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan, consider the following statements: 1. This scheme guarantees a minimum package of antenatal care services to women in their second and third trimesters of pregnancy and six months post-delivery health care service in any government health facility. 2. Under this scheme, private sector health care providers of certain specialities can volunteer to provide services at nearby government health facilities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan (PMSMA) guarantees a minimum package of antenatal care (ANC) services only during pregnancy (second and third trimesters). However, it does not provide health care services for six months post-delivery.
Statement 2 is correct: Under PMSMA, private sector doctors (specialists like gynecologists, radiologists, and physicians) can volunteer to provide free maternal health services at government health facilities on the 9th of every month. This public-private partnership aims to improve access to quality maternal health services.
UPSC 2024International Relations and Current Affairs · Current Affairs
Q27. With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maandhan (PM-SYM) Yojana, consider the following statements: 1. The entry age group for enrolment in the scheme is 21 to 40 years. 2. Age specific contribution shall be made by the beneficiary. 3. Each subscriber under the scheme shall receive a minimum pension of Rs. 3,000 per month after attaining the age of 60 years. 4. Family pension is applicable to the spouse and unmarried daughters. Which of the statements given above is/are correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The correct age group for enrollment is 18 to 40 years, not 21 to 40 years.
Statement 2 is correct: The contribution varies based on the age of the beneficiary at the time of joining the scheme. For example, an 18-year-old contributes 55 per month, while a 40-year-old contributes 200 per month.
Statement 3 is correct: After attaining 60 years of age, the subscriber is entitled to a monthly pension of ‘3,000.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Family pension is applicable only to the spouse (50% of the pension amount, i.e., ‘1,500 per month after the subscriber’s death). Unmarried daughters are not included in the family pension provision.
UPSC 2024International Relations and Current Affairs · Current Affairs
Q28. Consider the following airports: 1. Donyi Polo Airport 2. Kushinagar International Airport 3. Vijayawada International Airport In the recent past, which of the above have been constructed as Greenfield projects?
Explanation
Option 1 is correct: Donyi Polo Airport, Itanagar is the first greenfield airport in Arunachal Pradesh. The airport is suitable for all weather day operations.
Option 2 is correct: Since 2019, nearly 6 Greenfield airports namely, Kalaburagi, Orvakal (Kurnool), Sindhudurg, Itanagar, Kushinagar and Mopa have been operationalised, out of which Kushinagar and Mopa airports are International airports.
Option 3 is incorrect: Airport Authority of India has undertaken development/ expansion of airports in Port Blair (Andaman & Nicobar Islands), Vijayawada and Tirupati (Andhra Pradesh), Itanagar and Tezu (Arunachal Pradesh). Thus, Vijayawada airport is not a greenfield project.
UPSC 2023International Relations and Current Affairs · International Relations
Q29. Consider the following pairs:
Area of conflict
Country Where it is Located
1. Donbas
Syria
2. Kachin
Ethiopia
3. Tigray
North Yemen
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Explanation
Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: The Donbas region in eastern Ukraine includes Donetsk and Luhansk, which border Russia. These areas host the Russia-backed separatist entities, the Donetsk People’s Republic (DPR) and Luhansk People’s Re-public (LPR). Collectively, the entire region, including these territories, is referred to as Donbas.
Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Kachin Region lies in the northern part of Myanmar. The Kachin Independence Army (KIA) has been fighting against Myanmar’s military for greater autonomy.
Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Tigray is not located in North Yemen. It is a region in northern Ethiopia where a conflict erupted in November 2020 between the Ethiopian federal government and the Tigray People’s Liberation Front (TPLF).
UPSC 2023International Relations and Current Affairs · International Relations
Q30. Consider the following pairs:
Regions Often in News
Reason for Being Mentioned in News
1. North Kivu and Ituri
War between Armenia and Azerbaijan
2. Nagorno-Karabakh
Insurgency in Mozambique
3. Kherson and Zaporizhzhia
Dispute between Israel and Lebanon
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Explanation
Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: North Kivu and Ituri are located in the eastern region of the Democratic Republic of Congo. In these two provinces a "State of Siege" was declared in response to escalating violence.
Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Nagorno-Karabakh is a landlocked, mountainous region at the heart of a long-standing conflict between Azerbaijan and its predominantly Armenian population, which is backed by neighboring Armenia. Although internationally recognized as part of Azerbaijan, the region remains a source of ongoing dispute.
Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Russia has disclosed voting results indicating significant backing from four Ukrainian provinces-- Donetsk, Luhansk, Zaporizhzhia, and Kherson to unite with Russia.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
21
2024
(d) 1 and 3 only
22
2024
(c) Operation Sadbhavana
23
2024
(d) 3 only
24
2024
(d) Subrahmanyam Jaishankar
25
2024
(c) Garba dance
26
2024
(b) 2 only
27
2024
(b) 2 and 3 only
28
2024
(a) 1 and 2 only
29
2023
(d) None
30
2023
(d) None
What UPSC has tested in International Relations and Current Affairs
Questions about reports and indices ask which organisation publishes them, such as the World Economic Forum, the IMF, the World Bank and the World Justice Project.
Country-grouping questions ask how many of the listed countries belong to a group, such as NATO, G20 or UPI payment partners.
Current-affairs items in recent papers include the AI Action Summit, the Kho Kho World Cup, the Chess Olympiad and the Gandhi Peace Prize jury.
Many items are one-line identifications: what a term means, who wrote a book, or which body issued a report.
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on International Relations and Current Affairs?
This page covers 182 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on International Relations and Current Affairs, asked from 2011 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
Which chapters does International Relations and Current Affairs have?
Three: International Relations with 91 questions, Current Affairs with 48 and Miscellaneous with 43. International Relations covers groupings, treaties and countries in the news, while the other two cover national schemes, institutions, sports and awards.
Which years do these questions cover?
They run from 2011 to 2025, so almost all are recent. This keeps the facts closer to today, although each explanation states the position as it stood in the year the question was asked.
Are the 2025 questions on BRICS, BIMSTEC and the AI Action Summit included?
Yes. The 2025 paper’s questions on BRICS, BIMSTEC, INSTC, the Minerals Security Partnership, NATO membership, the AI Action Summit, Kho Kho and the Gandhi Peace Prize jury are included with their explanations.