Miscellaneous: UPSC Previous Year Questions (International Relations and Current Affairs)
43 previous year UPSC Prelims questions here cover topics that sit outside the main chapters, from 2011 to 2023. They include government schemes such as Janani Suraksha Yojana and the Soil Health Card, digital public platforms, sports awards and bodies such as the Tea Board and the Labour Bureau. The explanations state what each scheme or body does.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
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UPSC 2023International Relations and Current Affairs · Miscellaneous
Q1. Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: 1. It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India. 2. The official mascot was named ‘Thambi’. 3. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. 4. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The 44th Chess Olympiad is being held in Chennai from July 28 to August 9, 2022. The prestigious competition, organised since 1927, is being hosted in India for the first time and in Asia after 30 years.
Statement 2 is correct: The 44th Chess Olympiad has unveiled the official logo and mascot for the event. The Mascot is a chess knight called Thambi.
Statement 3 is incorrect:: Vera Menchik Cup is for 1st place in the Women’s section.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Hamilton-Russell Cup is given to the winning team in the open section.
Additional insight:
The 45th edition of the Chess Olympiad will take place in Hungary from September 10 to 23. This will be the first time since 1926 that the world’s biggest multi-national chess tournament returns to Budapest. In the 45th edition, this was the first Chess Olympiad in which teams of refugees participated due to efforts made through FIDE’s initiative for refugees "Chess for Protection". India won Gold Medal in Open category, Women category, Open Individual (Gukesh Dommaraju). Team India also won Gaprindashvili Trophy.
UPSC 2023International Relations and Current Affairs · Miscellaneous
Q2. Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana: 1. It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. 2. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. 3. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. 4. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation
The Janani Suraksha Yojana, a centrally sponsored scheme, was introduced in April 2005 by modifying the National Maternity Benefit Scheme (NMBS), which itself was established in August 1995 as a component within the National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP). Under the scheme, qualifying pregnant women are eligible to receive cash assistance regardless of the mother’s age or the number of children she has, as long as she gives birth in a government or accredited private health facility. The scheme is currently being executed across all states and Union Territories (UTs), with particular emphasis placed on Low Performing States (LPS).
Statement 1 is incorrect: Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) is a safe motherhood intervention under the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM). It is not an initiative of State Health Departments.
Statement 2 is correct: The objective of the Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women.
Statement 3 is correct: The Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) encourages pregnant women, particularly those with disadvantaged socio- economic backgrounds such as Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and households below the poverty line (BPL), to opt for institutional delivery.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The JSY is only related to the safe motherhood intervention. Providing public health facilities to sick infants upto one year of age is the objective of Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram.
UPSC 2023International Relations and Current Affairs · Miscellaneous
Q3. Consider the following pairs with regard to sports awards:
Award
Description
1. Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award
For the most spectacular and outstanding performance by a sportsperson over a period of the last four years.
2. Arjuna Award
For the lifetime achievement by a sportsperson
3. Dronacharya Award
To honour eminent coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons and teams.
4. Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar
To recognize the contribution made by sportspersons even after their retirement.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: ‘Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award’ the highest sporting honour in India, is presented annually by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India. It is given for the spectacular and most outstanding performance in the field of sports by a sportsperson over a period of the previous four years.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Arjuna Awards holds the distinction of being India’s second- highest sporting recognition. Recipients are chosen by a committee appointed by the Ministry based on their commendable performance over a span of four years, coupled with demonstrated qualities of leadership, sportsmanship, and discipline.
Statement 3 is correct: The Dronacharya Award represents a prestigious coaching accolade within the Republic of India. Recipients are carefully chosen by a committee appointed by the Ministry of Youth and Sports Affairs, who have helped athletes achieve excellence over a period of four years.
Statement 4 is incorrect: ‘Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Purus-kar’ is given to corporate entities (both in the private and public sector), sports control boards, and NGOs, including sports bodies at the State and National level who have played a visible role in the area of sports promotion and development. ‘Dhyan Chand Award for Lifetime Achievement in Sports and Games’ is given to honour sportspersons who have contributed to sports by their performance and continue to contribute to the promotion of sports events after their retirement.
UPSC 2023International Relations and Current Affairs · Miscellaneous
Q4. Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: 1. It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for pre-school children, adolescents and pregnant women. 2. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of child-birth. 3. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. 4. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: Under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy, the key intervention is to provide prophylactic iron and folic acid supplementation for preschool children, adolescents and pregnant women.
Statement 2 is correct: The Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping (by at least 3 minutes or until cord pulsations cease) at the time of childbirth.
Statement 3 is correct: The Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy provides a bi-annual mass deworming for children and adolescents in the age group between 1-19 years and of women of reproductive age and pregnant women as part of the National Deworming Day programme.
Statement 4 is correct: The strategy attempts to intensify awareness and integrate screening and treatment for following non-nutritional causes of anaemia with a special focus on malaria, haemoglobinopathies and fluorosis.
Additional insight:
The Anaemia Mukt Bharat - intensified Iron-plus Initiative aims to enhance current approaches and develop innovative strategies to address anaemia effectively. It targets six beneficiary groups, implements six interventions, and establishes six institutional mechanisms to attain the desired objectives as part of the POSHAN Abhiyan.
UPSC 2022International Relations and Current Affairs · Miscellaneous
Q5. Consider the following statements: 1. Gujarat has the largest solar park in India. 2. Kerala has a fully solar powered International Airport. 3. Goa has the largest floating solar photovoltaic project in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The largest solar park in India is Bhadla Solar Park, located in Rajasthan, not Gujarat. Spread over 14,000 acres, it has a capacity of 2,245 MW and is among the largest in the world.
Statement 2 is correct: Cochin International Airport in Kerala is the world’s first fully solar-powered international airport. It was inaugurated as a completely solar-run airport in 2015 and won the UN Champions of the Earth award in 2018 for its sustainable model.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Goa does not have the largest floating solar photovoltaic (PV) project. The largest floating solar PV project in India is located in Ramagundam, Telangana, with a 100 MW capacity, developed by NTPC.
UPSC 2022International Relations and Current Affairs · Miscellaneous
Q6. With reference to the "Tea Board" in India, consider the following statements: 1. The Tea Board is a statutory body. 2. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. 3. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru. 4. The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and Moscow. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The Tea Board of India is a statutory body established under the Tea Act, 1953. It is responsible for the promotion, research, regulation, and trade facilitation of the tea industry.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Tea Board functions under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The headquarters of the Tea Board of India is in Kolkata, not Bengaluru. Kolkata has been the traditional center of India’s tea trade.
Statement 4 is correct: The Tea Board has overseas offices in Dubai and Moscow, which help facilitate tea exports, conduct quality inspections, and enhance international market reach.
UPSC 2022International Relations and Current Affairs · Miscellaneous
Q7. Which one of the following statements best describes the ‘Polar Code’?
Explanation
The Polar Code, implemented in January 2017 by the International Maritime Organization (IMO), is a mandatory regulatory framework for ships operating in Arctic and Antarctic waters. It covers ship design, crew training, pollution prevention, and navigation safety, ensuring environmental protection and human safety in extreme polar conditions. The Polar Code supplements existing MARPOL (Marine Pollution) and SOLAS (Safety of Life at Sea) conventions.
UPSC 2022International Relations and Current Affairs · Miscellaneous
Q8. Consider the following statements: 1. The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organization. 2. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in Government of India and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The India Sanitation Coalition (ISC) is an independent platform led by FICCI, aimed at promoting sanitation, but it is not funded directly by the Government of India or WHO.
Statement 2 is correct: The National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA) is an autonomous research body under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA). It provides policy recommendations, urban research, and capacity building for cities across India.
UPSC 2022International Relations and Current Affairs · Miscellaneous
Q9. In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller’s Organization (CCO)? 1. CCO is the major source of Coal Statistics in Government of In-dia. 2. It monitors progress of development of Captive Coal/Lignite blocks. 3. It hears any objection to the Government’s notification relating to acquisition of coal-bearing areas. 4. It ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The CCO is the primary source of coal statistics in India, collecting data on production, stock, and dispatch.
Statement 2 is correct: It monitors captive coal and lignite blocks, ensuring efficient allocation and compliance.
Statement 3 is correct: The CCO hears objections regarding coal-bearing land acquisition, as per the Coal Bearing Areas (Acquisition and Development) Act, 1957.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The CCO does not oversee direct coal delivery; this function is handled by Coal India Limited (CIL) and private coal producers. Coal is India’s primary energy source, contributing to over 55% of electricity generation. The Coal Controller’s Organization (CCO) plays a pivotal role in coal regulation, monitoring, and policy implementation.
UPSC 2022International Relations and Current Affairs · Miscellaneous
Q10. In India, which one of the following compiles information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and layoffs in factories employing workers?
Explanation
The Labour Bureau, part of the Ministry of Labour & Employment, is tasked with compiling and analyzing data on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments, and layoffs in factories with workers. It releases the Industrial Disputes Statistics Report and other labour market indicators, which are essential for informing labour policy decisions in India. These data play a vital role in shaping policies, particularly in monitoring industrial conflicts, workforce reductions, and factory shutdowns. Other options are incorrect:
The Central Statistics Office (CSO) focuses on macroeconomic data, not industrial disputes. The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) handles investment and trade policies, not labour issues. National Technical Information System Manpower does not compile labour statistics.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
1
2023
(b) Only two
2
2023
(b) Only two
3
2023
(b) Only two
4
2023
(c) Only three
5
2022
(b) 2 only
6
2022
(d) 1 and 4
7
2022
(a) It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters.
8
2022
(b) 2 only
9
2022
(a) 1, 2 and 3
10
2022
(c) Labour Bureau
What UPSC has tested in Miscellaneous
Aarogya Setu, CoWIN, DigiLocker and DIKSHA are all built on open-source digital platforms.
The Labour Bureau compiles information on industrial disputes, closures and retrenchments.
Public Key Infrastructure in India is used in the context of digital security infrastructure.
The Polar Code is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters.
Aadhaar cannot be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile.
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on Miscellaneous?
This page covers 43 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on Miscellaneous (International Relations and Current Affairs), asked from 2011 to 2023. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
Can Aadhaar be used as proof of citizenship?
No. Aadhaar is an identity number given to residents and is not proof of citizenship, domicile or date of birth. A statement claiming that it proves citizenship or domicile is therefore incorrect.
What is the Polar Code?
The International Code for Ships Operating in Polar Waters, adopted by the International Maritime Organization. It sets safety and environmental rules for ships in Arctic and Antarctic waters, and came into force in 2017.
Which body compiles data on industrial disputes in India?
The Labour Bureau, an attached office of the Ministry of Labour and Employment. It compiles statistics on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments, wages and the Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers.
