Environmental Laws, Conventions and Policies: UPSC Previous Year Questions (Environment and Ecology)

Explanation

Laws to manage e-waste have been in place in India since

2011 under The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011, which was amended in 2016 as E-waste (Management) Rules, 2016. It recognises producers’ liability for recycling and reducing e-waste in the country. Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) is a policy approach under which producers are given a significant responsibility - financial and/or physical - for the treatment or disposal of post-consumer products. The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) has been given the Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) authorisation under the new e-waste rules.

Explanation

Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act (Campa Act), 2016 is aimed at providing an appropriate institutional mechanism to utilize afforestation funds. The Act sets up the Central and State Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management & Planning Authorities (CAMPA).

Statement 1 is correct: As per the Act, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) is set up at both central and state levels for expeditious and transparent utilisation of funds released for forest land diverted for non-forest purposes. The National Fund receives 10% & State Fund gets 90% of funds collected.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016 does not mandate people’s participation in compensatory afforestation programmes. While community involvement is encouraged in forest conservation efforts, the Act does not legally require it.

Explanation

Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 is aimed at protecting, improving the environment & reducing pollution. The Act, empowers the Government of India for coordination of action by the state, planning and execution of nationwide programmes. The Act authorises the central government to control & reduce pollution from all sources.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The provisions in the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 does not explicitly mention detailed provisions for public participation. However, it does enable certain mechanisms that indirectly promote public involvement.

Statement 2 is correct: Section 3(2)(v) of the Act states that the central government can prescribe standards for the quality of the environment and emissions or discharges of pollutants from various sources. The Act also allows the government to regulate industrial and commercial activities that may harm the environment.

Explanation

Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 promote the use of compost, conversion of waste into energy, and revision of parameters for landfills location and capacity. It replaced the Municipal Solid Wastes (Management and Handling) Rules, 2000 and are now applicable beyond municipal areas and have included urban agglomerations, census towns, notified industrial townships etc.

Option (a) is incorrect: Waste generators would now have to now segregate waste into three streams-Biodegradables, Dry (Plastic, Paper, Metal, Wood, etc.) and Domestic Hazardous waste (diapers, napkins, mosquito repellants, cleaning agents etc.) before handing it over to the collector.

Option (b) is incorrect: Under the Solid Waste Management Rules 2016, waste processing facilities will have to be set up by all local bodies having 1 million or more population within two years. In case of census towns below 1 million population, setting up common, or standalone sanitary landfills by, or for all local bodies having 0.5 million or more population and for setting up common, or regional sanitary landfills by all local bodies and census towns under 0.5 million population will have to be completed in three years.

Option (c) is correct: The new rules emphasize waste segregation at source, manufacturer responsibility for packaging and sanitary waste, and user fees for waste management. Biodegradable waste should be processed on-site through composting or bio-methanation, with residual waste handed over to authorized collectors. Schedule I of rules outlines criteria for landfill and waste processing site selection.

Option (d) is incorrect: As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016, it is not mandatory for the waste generator that the waste generated in one district cannot be moved to another district.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Critical Wildlife Habitats (CWH) are defined under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006.. These are areas within wildlife sanctuaries and national parks that are critical for the survival of wildlife species and where human activities may be restricted.

Statement 2 is correct: The Baiga tribe in Madhya Pradesh was one of the first communities in India to be granted Habitat Rights under the Forest Rights Act, 2006. This recognition ensures their right to live in and sustainably use forest resources in their traditional habitats.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The declaration of Habitat Rights is the responsibility of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs and state-level authorities under the framework of the Forest Rights Act, 2006.

Explanation

The NGT provides environmental justice and Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) NGT was established by National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, with jurisdiction over all civil disputes addressing important environmental issues. Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) was established under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act of 1974 as a statutory body. National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted for effective and expeditious disposal (within 6 months of appeal) of environmental cases and to help reduce burden of litigation in the higher courts. It is also entrusted with the powers & functions under the Air (prevention and control of pollution) Act, 1981. It provides for Enforcement of legal environmental rights, relief & compensation for damages caused. It works under the Ministry of Environment, Forest & Climate Change (MoEF&CC). The tribunal’s decision is enforceable as a civil court judgement and is governed by natural justice principles.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Both the NGT and CPCB were established by some Acts, namely, the NGT Act, 2010 and the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, respectively.

Statement 2 is correct: The objective of NGT is to provide effective & expeditious disposal (within 6 months of appeal) of the environmental cases and to help reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts.

Explanation

Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA) is an inclusive, voluntary and action-oriented multi-stakeholder platform on Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA). The vision is to improve food security, nutrition and resilience in the face of climate change. GACSA aims to catalyze and help create transformational partnerships to encourage actions that reflect an integrated approach to the three pillars of CSA.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The concept of Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA) was originally developed by FAO and officially presented at the Hague Conference on Agriculture, Food Security and Climate Change in 2010, through the paper "Climate-Smart Agriculture: Policies, Practices and Financing for Food Security, Adaptation and Mitigation". The Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA) was launched during the UN Climate Summit of 2014, in New York(not at the Paris Climate Summit in 2015).

Statement 2 is correct: Its membership does not impose any binding obligations on its participants, allowing for flexible engagement in promoting climate-smart agricultural practices.

Statement 3 is incorrect: While India is a signatory to the Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA), India had no instrumental role in the creation of GACSA.

Explanation

The proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat was aimed at establishing a second population of Asiatic lions in Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary in Madhya Pradesh. This initiative is part of the Asiatic Lion Reintroduction Project, which seeks to ensure the genetic stability and conservation of the species. The last wild population of the Asiatic lion is found in the region of Gir Forest National Park, in the state of Gujarat.

Explanation

Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 covers endangered species that need rigorous protection. The species are granted protection from poaching, killing, trading etc. Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 was passed in order to safeguard various plant and animal species. Some of the animals granted protection under the Schedule I include, Black Buck, Tiger, Clouded Leopard, Snow Leopard, Swamp Deer, Himalayan Bear, Asiatic Cheetah, Kashmiri Stag, Fishing Cat, Lion-tailed Macaque, Musk Deer, Rhinoceros, Brow Antlered Deer, Chinkara (Indian Gazelle), Capped Langur, Golden Langur, Hoolock Gibbon etc. Species declared protected under Schedule I are prohibited to be hunted throughout India, except under threat to human life or in case of a disease that is beyond recovery. Thus tortoise species declared under Schedule I enjoys the same level of protection as iconic species like the tiger and elephant. Note: Updated schedules have been added in the vermin question of 2024.

Explanation

Under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, certain species are granted varying levels of protection through classification into different schedules. Species listed in Schedule I receive the highest level of protection, prohibiting hunting except under specific circumstances such as threat to human life, if the animal is disabled or diseased beyond recovery or for scientific research. The Gharial (Gavialis gangeticus), a critically endangered crocodilian, is listed under Schedule I, providing it with stringent protection measures. The Indian Wild Ass (Equus hemionus khur), found primarily in the Rann of Kutch, is also listed under Schedule I, ensuring its protection. The Wild Buffalo (Bubalus arnee), native to parts of central India, is included in Schedule I, reflecting its endangered status and the need for strict conservation efforts. Note: Updated schedules have been added in the vermin question of 2024."