MaargX UPSC by SAARTHI IAS

Fundamental Rights — RPSC Polity MCQ Quiz with Answers & Explanations
Chapter 2 · 100 Questions · Answers & Explanations

Fundamental Rights

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1

Which part of the Constitution of India deals with Fundamental Rights?

Explanation

Part III of the Constitution of India comprises Articles 12 to 35, which encompass the Fundamental Rights. These rights are often described as the Magna Carta of India. They aim to protect the liberties of citizens against the state and ensure the development of individuals through political democracy and social justice principles.

2

The concept of Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution was primarily inspired by the Constitution of which country?

Explanation

The concept of Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution was heavily influenced by the Bill of Rights in the United States Constitution. While the British tradition emphasizes parliamentary sovereignty, the Indian framers chose the American model of a written constitution where specific rights are judicially enforceable against the legislative and executive branches.

3

Under Article 12 of the Constitution, which of the following is NOT included in the definition of the State?

Explanation

Article 12 provides a broad definition of State to include the executive and legislative organs of the Union and States, all local authorities, and other statutory or non-statutory authorities. Private entities are typically excluded unless they perform public functions or are under deep and pervasive state control, functioning as state instrumentalities.

4

The following question consists of two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the options given below: Assertion (A): Article 13 declares that all laws that are inconsistent with or in derogation of any of the fundamental rights shall be void. Reason (R): Article 13 expressly provides for the doctrine of judicial review to protect fundamental rights.

Explanation

Article 13 of the Constitution provides the foundation for judicial review by declaring laws inconsistent with fundamental rights as void. This article ensures the supremacy of Part III. Since courts are empowered to test the validity of laws against these rights, it expressly provides the doctrine of judicial review to maintain constitutional sanctity.

5

The concept of equality before the law as enshrined in Article 14 of the Indian Constitution is of:

Explanation

The concept of equality before the law is derived from the British constitutional tradition and the Rule of Law. It represents a negative concept, implying the absence of special privileges and the equal subjection of all classes to the ordinary law. In contrast, the equal protection of laws is of American origin.

6

Article 15 prohibits discrimination by the State against any citizen on grounds only of:

Explanation

Article 15(1) prohibits the State from discriminating against citizens on five specific grounds. These grounds are religion, race, caste, sex, and place of birth. The use of the word only emphasizes that the State cannot discriminate based solely on these factors, though other grounds like residence may sometimes be permissible for specific state classifications.

7

Match the articles in List I with the provisions in List II and select the correct answer using the options given below: List I: (Article) A. Article 14 B. Article 15 C. Article 16 D. Article 17 List II: (Provision) i. Equality of opportunity in public employment ii. Abolition of untouchability iii. Equality before law iv. Prohibition of discrimination

Explanation

This matching exercise aligns constitutional provisions with their respective articles. Article 14 ensures equality before the law, while Article 15 prohibits discrimination. Article 16 provides equality of opportunity in public employment for all citizens. Finally, Article 17 abolishes the practice of untouchability and forbids its implementation in any form within the Indian society.

8

Consider the following statements regarding Article 16 of the Constitution: Statement I: Article 16 guarantees equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment under the State. Statement II: The State is prohibited from making any provision for the reservation of appointments in favour of any backward class of citizens. Which of the following is correct?

Explanation

Article 16 guarantees equality of opportunity in public employment matters. While the first statement correctly captures this guarantee, the second is incorrect because Article 16(4) specifically empowers the State to provide reservations for any backward class of citizens not adequately represented. This ensures substantive equality and social justice within the administrative services of the government.

9

Consider the following statements regarding the freedoms guaranteed under Article 19: I. They are available to both citizens and foreigners. II. They can be suspended during an emergency declared on the grounds of armed rebellion. III. They are subject to reasonable restrictions by the State. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

Explanation

Fundamental Rights under Article 19 are exclusive to Indian citizens and are not available to foreigners. They can only be suspended during an emergency declared on grounds of war or external aggression, not armed rebellion. However, all these freedoms are subject to reasonable restrictions imposed by the State on specific grounds like public order.

10

The fundamental right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 has been expanded by the Supreme Court to include:

Explanation

Article 21 has been interpreted broadly by the Supreme Court through various landmark judgments. The right to life and personal liberty now encompasses numerous aspects of human dignity, including the right to a speedy trial, protection against solitary confinement, and the right to privacy, which was affirmed in the historic Puttaswamy case as an intrinsic right.

11

A lower caste individual is denied entry into a public well solely based on caste. This act directly violates which fundamental right?

Explanation

Denying entry to a public well based on caste is a direct manifestation of untouchability. Article 17 of the Constitution abolished untouchability and prohibited its practice in any form. This article is unique as it is enforceable against private individuals, ensuring that social discrimination is legally punished under laws like the Protection of Civil Rights Act.

12

Find the odd one out regarding the writs issued under Article 32:

Explanation

Article 32 empowers the Supreme Court to issue five specific types of writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights. These include Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, and Quo Warranto. An injunction is a general legal remedy used in civil law but is not one of the five prerogative writs traditionally listed under the constitutional remedies article.

13

Which Article of the Indian Constitution expressly prohibits human trafficking and forced labour?

Explanation

Article 23 prohibits traffic in human beings, begar, and other similar forms of forced labor. Any contravention of this provision is an offence punishable in accordance with law. This right is available to both citizens and non-citizens and protects individuals against the State as well as private persons, aiming to uphold human dignity and freedom.

14

Which of the following is the correct sequence of the first four freedoms guaranteed under Article 19(1) of the Indian Constitution?

Explanation

Article 19(1) of the Indian Constitution lists several freedoms in a specific order. The sequence begins with the freedom of speech and expression, followed by the right to assemble peacefully without arms. The third is the freedom to form associations or unions, and the fourth is the right to move freely throughout the territory of India.

15

Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched regarding writs and their meanings?

Explanation

The literal meaning of Certiorari is to be informed or to be certified. It is a writ issued by a higher court to squash the order of a lower court. In contrast, the writ of Prohibition means to forbid and is issued to prevent a lower court from exceeding its jurisdiction or acting against natural justice.

16

Article 25 guarantees freedom of conscience and free profession, practice, and propagation of religion. This right is subject to:

Explanation

Freedom of religion under Article 25 is not absolute. It is expressly made subject to public order, morality, and health, as well as to other provisions of Part III. This allows the State to intervene in religious practices to maintain social harmony, protect public health, and ensure that religious activities do not violate other fundamental rights.

17

Match the articles in List I with the subject matter in List II and select the correct answer using the options given below: List I: (Article) A. Article 25 B. Article 26 C. Article 27 D. Article 28 List II: (Subject Matter) i. Freedom to manage religious affairs ii. Freedom from attending religious instruction iii. Freedom of conscience and free practice of religion iv. Freedom from payment of taxes for promotion of any religion

Explanation

Articles 25 to 28 cover the Right to Freedom of Religion. Article 25 deals with freedom of conscience and free practice. Article 26 allows for managing religious affairs. Article 27 prohibits taxes for religious promotion, and Article 28 provides freedom from attending religious instructions in state-funded institutions. This structure ensures a secular state while protecting individual and collective religious rights.

18

Which of the following statements about Article 29 is correct?

Explanation

Article 29 provides for the protection of the interests of minorities. It states that any section of citizens residing in India having a distinct language, script, or culture has the right to conserve the same. Notably, this right is not restricted to religious or linguistic minorities but extends to all sections of citizens, ensuring cultural preservation.

19

Consider the following statements regarding Article 32: I. It is itself a Fundamental Right. II. The Supreme Court has original and exclusive jurisdiction to issue writs under it. III. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar called it the heart and soul of the Constitution. IV. The right guaranteed by this Article cannot be suspended except as otherwise provided by the Constitution. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

Explanation

Article 32 is a Fundamental Right that makes other rights enforceable. Dr. Ambedkar called it the heart and soul of the Constitution. Its suspension is only permitted as per constitutional provisions. One statement is incorrect because the Supreme Court’s jurisdiction under Article 32 is original but not exclusive, as High Courts share concurrent powers under Article

20

The doctrine of eclipse, applied in constitutional law, is an effect primarily associated with which Article?

Explanation

The doctrine of eclipse is associated with Article It suggests that a pre-constitutional law inconsistent with fundamental rights is not dead but becomes dormant or eclipsed. If the fundamental right is later amended or removed, the law becomes active again. This doctrine primarily applies to pre-constitutional laws but has been extended to post-constitutional laws in certain contexts.

21

The right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions is protected under which Article?

Explanation

Article 30 guarantees the right of all minorities, whether based on religion or language, to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. This right ensures that minorities can preserve their culture and provide education to their community members. The State is also prohibited from discriminating against such institutions when providing financial aid based on their minority management.

22

Arrange the following grounds of non- discrimination in the sequential order they appear in Article 15(1) of the Constitution: I. Caste II. Race III. Sex IV. Religion V. Place of birth Which of the following represents the correct sequence?

Explanation

Article 15(1) of the Constitution prohibits the State from discriminating against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, and place of birth. The correct sequence follows this specific constitutional text. This provision is a pillar of the right to equality, ensuring that these inherent characteristics do not lead to unfavorable treatment by government authorities.

23

The term untouchability as mentioned in Article 17 of the Constitution is defined in:

Explanation

Although Article 17 abolishes untouchability, the Constitution does not define the term. Similarly, the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955, and the SC/ST Act, 1989, do not provide a specific definition. Courts have generally interpreted it in a historical sense, referring to the social practice of boycotting certain classes of people based on their birth in specific castes.

24

Consider the following entities: I. Life Insurance Corporation (LIC) II. Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC) III. Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL) IV. A private school with no state funding V. The judiciary exercising non-administrative functions Which of the above entities falls under the definition of State according to Article 12 as interpreted by the Supreme Court?

Explanation

Under Article 12, the definition of State includes statutory bodies like LIC, ONGC, and SAIL because they are instrumentalities of the government. A private school without state funding does not usually fall under this definition. The judiciary is generally not considered State when exercising judicial functions, although it may be considered so when performing administrative or rule- making functions.

25

In the landmark case of Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) v. Union of India, the Supreme Court held that the Right to Privacy is protected under which Article?

Explanation

In the landmark 2017 case of Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) v. Union of India, a nine- judge bench of the Supreme Court unanimously declared that the Right to Privacy is a fundamental right. The Court held that this right is an intrinsic part of the right to life and personal liberty guaranteed under Article 21 and Part III.

26

Consider the following statements regarding the restrictions on Fundamental Rights: Statement I: The State can impose reasonable restrictions on the exercise of the freedom of speech and expression on the grounds of public order. Statement II: The reasonableness of the restrictions is a decision of the judiciary and can be challenged in court. Which of the following is correct?

Explanation

Article 19(2) allows the State to impose reasonable restrictions on speech for grounds like public order. Crucially, the judiciary has the power to determine whether a restriction is reasonable or arbitrary. This ensures a balance between individual liberty and social control, as the courts act as the final arbiter in testing the constitutional validity of such legislative measures.

27

Match the freedoms in List I with the grounds for restriction in List II and select the correct answer using the options given below: List I: (Freedom under Article 19) A. Freedom of speech and expression B. Freedom of assembly C. Freedom of association D. Freedom of movement List II: (Ground for Restriction) i. Interests of the general public or protection of any Scheduled Tribe ii. Sovereignty and integrity of India, and public order iii. Defamation or contempt of court iv. Public order or morality

Explanation

Each freedom under Article 19 is subject to specific restrictions. Speech can be restricted due to defamation. Assembly and association are limited by public order and sovereignty. Movement can be restricted for the general public interest or the protection of Scheduled Tribes. These restrictions must be reasonable and based on the grounds explicitly mentioned in clauses of Article

28

Identify the incorrect statement regarding Article 24 of the Constitution:

Explanation

Article 24 prohibits the employment of children below 14 years in factories, mines, or hazardous occupations. However, it does not explicitly ban employment in harmless or innocent work. Over time, statutory laws like the Child Labour Act have become stricter, but the constitutional provision itself specifically targets hazardous sectors to protect the health and safety of young children.

29

Consider the following cases related to Article 21: I. A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras II. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India III. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala Which of the above case(s) marks a shift from procedure established by law to due process of law in Indian jurisprudence?

Explanation

In the Maneka Gandhi case, the Supreme Court moved away from the narrow interpretation of procedure established by law used in the A.K. Gopalan case. The Court ruled that any procedure must be just, fair, and reasonable, effectively introducing the American concept of substantive due process into Article This expansion significantly strengthened the protection of personal liberty.

30

Which of the following is an exception to the rule of Equality before Law under Article 14?

Explanation

Article 361 provides an exception to the rule of equality before law. The President of India and State Governors are not answerable to any court for the exercise of their official powers and duties. They also enjoy immunity from criminal proceedings and arrest during their term. This ensures they can perform their constitutional roles without the threat of legal harassment.

31

Which of the following best describes the reason Dr. B.R. Ambedkar called Article 32 the heart and soul of the Constitution?

Explanation

Dr. B.R. Ambedkar described Article 32 as the most important article, without which the Constitution would be a nullity. It provides the right to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights. This makes the rights real and effective, as a right without a remedy is meaningless. It acts as the ultimate protector of individual liberties.

32

Article 20 of the Indian Constitution provides protection in respect of conviction for offences. Which of the following principles is NOT covered under this Article?

Explanation

Article 20 offers protection against arbitrary and excessive punishment through three principles: ex-post-facto laws, double jeopardy, and self- incrimination. Preventive detention is not covered under Article 20; instead, it is addressed under Article Article 22 provides specific safeguards for persons arrested under ordinary laws and those detained under preventive detention laws, forming a separate category of protection.

33

A religious community decides to establish a charitable hospital strictly managed by its own members. The State denies a general subsidy to this hospital citing it is managed by a specific religious group. Under which Article can the community primarily challenge this decision?

Explanation

Article 26 grants every religious denomination the right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes. If a community’s charitable hospital is denied a general subsidy solely because of its religious management, it can challenge the action under this article. This right is subject to public order, morality, and health, but protects the administrative autonomy of religious groups.

34

The following question consists of two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the oth7er as Reason (R). Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the options given below: Assertion (A): The Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights and not for any other purpose. Reason (R): Article 32 limits the Supreme Court’s original jurisdiction specifically to the enforcement of Part III of the Constitution.

Explanation

The Supreme Court’s jurisdiction under Article 32 is limited to the enforcement of Fundamental Rights. Unlike the High Courts under Article 226, the Supreme Court cannot issue writs for any other purpose. Thus, Assertion A is true. Reason R correctly explains this limitation, highlighting that Article 32 is specifically designed to safeguard the provisions of Part III of the Constitution.

35

Identify the correctly matched pair regarding reservations and their constitutional basis:

Explanation

) Article 16(4A) was inserted to allow the State to provide reservation in promotions for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, including consequential seniority. Other options are incorrectly matched: EWS reservation is under 15(6) and 16(6), while Article 15(4) deals with socially and educationally backward classes. Article 16(4B) deals with carrying forward unfilled vacancies, not Article 16(2), which prohibits discrimination.

36

Which Article restricts Fundamental Rights while martial law is in force in any area?

Explanation

Article 34 provides for the restriction of Fundamental Rights while martial law is in force in any area within the territory of India. It empowers Parliament to indemnify any person in government service for acts done during the maintenance of order. Martial law is a situation where the military takes over the administration due to the breakdown of ordinary law.

37

Match the writs in List I with the conditions for issue in List II and select the correct answer using the options given below: List I: (Writ) A. Certiorari B. Prohibition C. Mandamus D. Quo Warranto List II: (Condition for Issue) i. Issued to a person who has detained another unlawfully ii. Issued to compel a public authority to perform its duty iii. Issued to a lower court to prevent it from exceeding its jurisdiction iv. Issued to squash an order passed by a lower court v. Issued to inquire into the legality of a claim to a public office

Explanation

Certiorari is used to squash orders, while Prohibition prevents lower courts from exceeding jurisdiction. Mandamus compels public authorities to perform legal duties. Quo Warranto inquires into the legality of holding a public office. These writs are essential tools for judicial control over administrative and judicial bodies, ensuring they operate within the bounds of the law and constitutional mandates.

38

The term begar mentioned in Article 23 refers to:

Explanation

The term begar is a specific form of forced labor where a person is compelled to work without receiving any payment or wages. Article 23 of the Constitution prohibits begar and other similar forms of forced labor. This provision aims to eliminate feudal and exploitative practices that violate human dignity and the right to be free from economic coercion.

39

Consider the following statements about Article 15: I. It prevents the State from discriminating against citizens on certain specific grounds. II. It prevents private citizens from denying access to public restaurants and shops. III. It allows the State to make special provisions for women and children. IV. It prevents the State from making special provisions for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

Explanation

Article 15 prohibits State discrimination and prevents private discrimination in public places like restaurants. Clause allows special provisions for women and children. One statement is incorrect because Article 15(4) and 15(5) actually empower the State to make special provisions for the advancement of socially and educationally backward classes, rather than preventing such beneficial and affirmative actions.

40

Consider the following statements regarding Article 22: Statement I: A person arrested must be produced before the nearest magistrate within 24 hours of arrest. Statement II: The safeguard of being produced before a magistrate within 24 hours is available to enemy aliens and persons arrested under preventive detention laws. Which of the following is correct?

Explanation

Article 22(2) requires that every person arrested under ordinary law be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours. However, Article 22(3) explicitly states that these safeguards do not apply to enemy aliens or persons arrested under preventive detention laws. Thus, while Statement I reflects a general constitutional right, Statement II wrongly includes categories that are specifically exempted from protections.

41

Find the odd one out among the following Articles, based on their availability to non- citizens:

Explanation

Certain Fundamental Rights are reserved exclusively for Indian citizens, including Article 15 (prohibition of discrimination), Article 16 (public employment), Article 19 (freedoms), and Articles 29 and 30 (cultural rights). In contrast, rights like Article 14 (equality), Article 20 (conviction), and Article 21 (life and liberty) are available to both citizens and foreigners within the territory of India, excluding enemy aliens.

42

Article 21A, which makes the right to education a Fundamental Right, was added to the Constitution by which Amendment Act?

Explanation

The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002 introduced Article 21A, which mandates that the State provide free and compulsory education to all children between the ages of six and fourteen. This landmark amendment elevated the right to education from a directive principle to a justiciable fundamental right, emphasizing the nation’s commitment to universalizing elementary education for all children.

43

Which of the following is a correct statement regarding cultural and educational rights?

Explanation

Under Article 30(2), the State is prohibited from discriminating against any educational institution in granting aid on the ground that it is under the management of a minority, whether religious or linguistic. While minorities have the right to administer institutions, they are not immune from reasonable regulations regarding academic standards, sanitation, and national security established by the State for all.

44

Consider the following statements regarding the features of writs: I. Mandamus cannot be issued against a private individual. II. Prohibition can only be issued against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities. III. Certiorari can be issued against administrative authorities affecting rights of individuals. IV. Quo Warranto can be sought by any interested person, not necessarily the aggrieved person. V. Habeas Corpus cannot be issued against a private individual. Which of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?

Explanation

One statement is incorrect because the writ of Habeas Corpus can indeed be issued against both public authorities and private individuals. This writ is a powerful tool to protect personal liberty against any form of unlawful detention. Other statements correctly describe the scope of Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, and Quo Warranto as per settled Indian constitutional jurisprudence and various landmark judicial precedents.

45

Which of the following does NOT constitute an exception to the general rule of equality under Article 14?

Explanation

Article 14 allows for reasonable classification based on intelligible differentia but prohibits arbitrary discrimination. While the President, foreign diplomats, and reasonable statutory classifications are recognized exceptions, differential treatment based solely on birthplace is generally prohibited under the right to equality. Such a distinction would violate the non-discrimination principles enshrined in both Articles 14 and 15 of the Constitution.

46

The principle of Rule of Law is embodied in which Article of the Constitution?

Explanation

Article 14 embodies the Rule of Law, a concept popularized by A.V. Dicey. It ensures that the law is supreme and that no person is above the law. This article includes two aspects: equality before the law and equal protection of the laws. Together, they form the bedrock of the Indian democratic system, preventing arbitrary exercise of power by the State.

47

Match the constitutional principles in List I with the corresponding articles in List II and select the correct answer using the options given below: List I: (Constitutional Principle) A. Protection of life and personal liberty B. Abolition of titles C. Prohibition of traffic in human beings D. Freedom to manage religious affairs List II: (Corresponding Article) i. Article 18 ii. Article 21 iii. Article 23 iv. Article 26

Explanation

A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii This match links principles to their specific articles: Article 21 protects life and personal liberty, while Article 18 abolishes titles to ensure social equality. Article 23 prohibits human trafficking and forced labor as part of the right against exploitation. Article 26 grants religious denominations the freedom to manage their own religious affairs, ensuring institutional religious freedom within the secular framework.

48

What is the most appropriate definition of a minority for the purpose of Article 30 in India?

Explanation

In the T.M.A. Pai Foundation case, the Supreme Court clarified that for the purposes of Article 30, a minority is determined in relation to the population of the State, not the whole of India. Since reorganization of states occurred on linguistic lines, the state is the appropriate unit to identify both linguistic and religious minorities entitled to constitutional protections.

49

Consider the following rights under Article 26: I. Right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes. II. Right to acquire movable and immovable property. III. Right to administer such property in accordance with law. Which of the above right(s) is/are subject to public order, morality, and health?

Explanation

Article 26 guarantees collective religious rights to denominations. However, all rights under this article, including establishing institutions, acquiring property, and administering property, are expressly subject to public order, morality, and health. This ensures that while religious groups enjoy autonomy, their activities must not jeopardize the general welfare of society or the foundational values of the Constitution.

50

During the proclamation of National Emergency under Article 352, which Fundamental Rights cannot be suspended?

Explanation

Following the 44th Amendment Act of 1978, the President cannot suspend the right to move the court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21, even during a National Emergency. Article 20 relates to protection in respect of conviction for offences, and Article 21 relates to the right to life and personal liberty, representing non-derogable rights.

51

Consider the following statements: Statement I: The judiciary is explicitly mentioned under the definition of State in Article 12 of the Constitution. Statement II: The Supreme Court has ruled that courts act as State when performing administrative functions, but not when exercising judicial functions. Which of the following is correct?

Explanation

Article 12 does not explicitly mention the judiciary in its definition of State. However, through judicial interpretation, the Supreme Court has clarified that when courts perform administrative functions, they fall under the definition of State. Conversely, while performing judicial functions, such as delivering judgments, they are not considered State within the meaning of Article 12 or the Bill of Rights.

52

Which of the following statements regarding Article 28 (freedom as to attendance at religious instruction) is incorrect?

Explanation

Article 28(3) clearly states that no person attending an educational institution recognized by the State or receiving aid from State funds can be required to take part in religious instruction or worship without their consent. For minors, the consent of their guardian is mandatory. This provision upholds the secular character of education and protects individuals from forced religious participation.

53

If a citizen’s fundamental right under Article 19 is violated by a private individual without any state backing, what is the immediate effect regarding constitutional remedies?

Explanation

Fundamental Rights, including those under Article 19, are primarily protections against State action. If a private individual violates another person’s rights without any State involvement, the constitutional remedy under Article 32 is not typically available. In such cases, the aggrieved person must seek remedies under ordinary civil or criminal laws rather than filing a writ petition for a fundamental rights violation.

54

The following question consists of two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the options given below: Assertion (A): The Indian Constitution originally adopted the phrase “procedure established by law” instead of “due process of law” in Article 21. Reason (R): The framers wanted to empower the courts to invalidate laws solely on the ground of being unreasonable or unjust.

Explanation

A true but R is false. The framers deliberately chose procedure established by law over due process of law to avoid giving the judiciary excessive power to strike down legislation on the grounds of unreasonableness. Therefore, Assertion A is true. However, Reason R is false because the actual intent was to limit judicial interference, unlike the American system which allows broader judicial review of legislative policy.

55

Article 18 abolishes titles. Which of the following is NOT prohibited under this Article?

Explanation

Article 18 prohibits the State from conferring titles, but it explicitly excepts military and academic distinctions. Ranks like General or Colonel and academic degrees like Doctor are not considered titles of nobility that create social hierarchy. Instead, they represent professional merit and service. Thus, they are permissible and do not violate the constitutional mandate for social equality among citizens.

56

The State enacts a law prohibiting citizens from holding a public demonstration on a major highway to prevent massive traffic disruptions. Under which provision can the State justify this law?

Explanation

Article 19(1)(b) grants the right to assemble peacefully and without arms. However, Article 19(3) empowers the State to impose reasonable restrictions on this right in the interests of public order or the sovereignty and integrity of India. Prohibiting demonstrations on a busy highway to prevent traffic chaos is a valid exercise of power to maintain public order and safety.

57

Match the case laws in List I with the fundamental rights in List II and select the correct answer using the options given below: List I: (Case Law) A. Indira Sawhney Case B. Vishaka Case C. M.C. Mehta Case D. S.R. Bommai Case List II: (Fundamental Right) i. Right to pollution-free environment (Article 21) ii. Secularism and freedom of religion iii. Reservation in public employment (Article 16) iv. Protection against sexual harassment (Articles 14, 15, 21)

Explanation

These landmark cases defined fundamental rights: Indira Sawhney clarified reservations under Article Vishaka established guidelines against sexual harassment under Articles 14, 15, and M.C. Mehta expanded the right to a clean environment under Article S.R. Bommai emphasized secularism as part of the basic structure, protecting religious freedom and preventing the misuse of Article 356 by central authorities.

58

The definition of traffic in human beings under Article 23 includes:

Explanation

Traffic in human beings under Article 23 is a comprehensive term. It includes the commercial buying and selling of men, women, and children as if they were goods. It also encompasses immoral trafficking in women and children and archaic exploitative systems like the devadasi system. These practices are prohibited to protect human dignity and prevent the commodification of individuals.

59

Consider the following statements about freedom of movement and residence (Article 19(1)(d) and (e)): I. Both these rights are complementary to each other. II. They can be restricted to protect the interests of any Scheduled Tribe. III. The Supreme Court has ruled that the freedom of movement of prostitutes can be restricted on grounds of public health. IV. They grant an absolute right to travel abroad. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

Explanation

Freedom of movement and residence are closely linked. They can be restricted for the general public interest or to protect Scheduled Tribes. The Supreme Court has upheld restrictions on prostitutes’ movement for public health. One statement is incorrect because Article 19 only covers movement within the territory of India; the right to travel abroad is protected under Article 21, not Article

60

Under Article 33, Parliament is empowered to restrict or abrogate the Fundamental Rights of:

Explanation

Article 33 allows Parliament to modify the application of Fundamental Rights for members of the Armed Forces, paramilitary forces, police forces, intelligence agencies, and telecommunication systems set up for these forces. This is done to ensure the proper discharge of their duties and the maintenance of discipline, which is essential for national security and the maintenance of public order.

61

Find the odd one out from the following grounds of reasonable restrictions on Freedom of Speech and Expression under Article 19(2):

Explanation

Article 19(2) lists specific grounds for restricting freedom of speech, such as contempt of court, friendly relations with foreign states, and decency or morality. Protection of the interests of Scheduled Tribes is not a ground for restricting speech; instead, it is a ground for restricting the freedom of movement and residence under other clauses of the same article within the Constitution.

62

Arrange the following protections in the sequence they are mentioned in clauses (1), (2), and (3) of Article 20 of the Constitution: I. Protection against double jeopardy II. Protection against self-incrimination III. Protection against ex-post-facto law Which of the following represents the correct sequence?

Explanation

Article 20 of the Constitution contains three specific protections in a set sequence. Clause provides protection against ex-post-facto laws. Clause ensures protection against double jeopardy, prohibiting multiple prosecutions for the same offence. Finally, Clause provides the right against self-incrimination, stating that no accused person can be compelled to be a witness against themselves in a trial.

63

Which of the following is the best description of “equal protection of laws” under Article 14?

Explanation

Equal protection of the laws, derived from the American Constitution, is a positive concept. It implies that among equals, the law should be equal and equally administered. It permits the State to classify persons for legitimate purposes, provided the classification is not arbitrary. This ensures that people in similar situations are treated similarly by the Indian legal system.

64

Consider the following rights: I. Right to clean environment II. Right to free legal aid III. Right to travel abroad IV. Right to primary education V. Right to strike Which of the above rights have been included under Article 21 by the Supreme Court?

Explanation

Through judicial activism, the Supreme Court has included the rights to a clean environment, free legal aid, travel abroad, and primary education under the umbrella of Article However, the right to strike is not considered a fundamental right under Article 21 or Article 19; it is generally viewed as a statutory or legal right subject to industrial regulations.

65

Consider the following statements regarding Article 15: Statement I: Article 15(1) strictly prohibits any form of discrimination on the ground of sex. Statement II: Article 15(3) allows the State to make special provisions for women and children, superseding the strict prohibition of Article 15(1). Which of the following is correct?

Explanation

Article 15(1) prohibits discrimination based on sex. However, Article 15(3) provides an exception, allowing the State to make special provisions for women and children. This is a form of protective discrimination designed to address historical disadvantages. These two provisions work together to achieve substantive equality by acknowledging that certain groups may require additional support from the State for advancement.

66

The writ of Mandamus cannot be issued against which of the following?

Explanation

Mandamus is a writ issued to command a public authority to perform a legal duty. However, it cannot be issued against the President of India or State Governors for the exercise of their official powers. It is also not available against private individuals, the Chief Justice of a High Court acting in a judicial capacity, or to enforce departmental instructions.

67

Match the categories in List I with the specific fundamental rights in List II and select the correct answer using the options given below: List I: (Overarching Category) A. Right to Equality B. Right to Freedom C. Right against Exploitation D. Right to Freedom of Religion List II: (Specific Fundamental Right) i. Prohibition of employment of children in factories ii. Abolition of untouchability iii. Freedom to manage religious affairs iv. Protection in respect of conviction for offences

Explanation

Fundamental Rights are grouped into categories. The Right to Equality includes the abolition of untouchability (Article 17). The Right to Freedom includes protection in respect of conviction for offences (Article 20). The Right against Exploitation covers the prohibition of child labor in factories (Article 24). Finally, the Right to Freedom of Religion includes the freedom to manage religious affairs (Article 26).

68

Which of the following statements about Article 16(4A) is correct?

Explanation

Article 16(4A) was added by the 77th Amendment Act, 1995, and further modified by the 85th Amendment. It empowers the State to provide for reservation in matters of promotion to any class or classes of posts in the services under the State in favor of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes which are not adequately represented in state services.

69

Consider the following statements about Article 30: I. It limits the right to establish educational institutions only to religious minorities. II. The right includes the right to administer the institution. III. The State cannot acquire the property of a minority educational institution under any circumstance. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

Explanation

Article 30 applies to both religious and linguistic minorities. The right includes both establishment and administration. One statement is incorrect because the State can acquire the property of a minority educational institution, provided it pays an amount that does not abridge or abrogate the right guaranteed under the article. Thus, minority property is not completely immune from state acquisition.

70

The writ of Habeas Corpus can be issued in all of the following cases EXCEPT:

Explanation

Habeas Corpus is a remedy for unlawful detention. However, it cannot be issued if the detention is lawful, or if the proceeding is for contempt of a legislature or a court. It is also not applicable when detention is by a competent court or when the detention is outside the territorial jurisdiction of the High Court or Supreme Court concerned.

71

The principle of double jeopardy under Article 20(2) means:

Explanation

The principle of double jeopardy, found in Article 20(2), protects a person from being prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once. This protection is available only in proceedings before a court of law or a judicial tribunal. It does not prevent departmental or administrative inquiries from taking place in addition to criminal prosecution for the same act.

72

Identify the incorrect pair regarding the grounds on which discrimination is explicitly prohibited by the respective Articles:

Explanation

Article 25 guarantees freedom of religion and does not list specific grounds of non- discrimination like wealth. While Articles 15, 16, and 29(2) explicitly list grounds such as religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth, descent, residence, and language, wealth is not a constitutionally prohibited ground for discrimination mentioned in these specific fundamental rights articles in Part III of the Constitution.

73

A group of citizens wants to form an association but the State passes a law banning the formation of all associations that discuss government policies. Under which fundamental right can the citizens challenge this law?

Explanation

) Article 19(1)(c) guarantees all citizens the right to form associations or unions or co-operative societies. A law that bans associations simply for discussing government policies would be a significant infringement on this right. While the State can impose reasonable restrictions on grounds like public order or morality, a blanket ban on political discussion within associations would likely be unconstitutional.

74

The following question consists of two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the options given below: Assertion (A): Article 14 forbids class legislation but permits reasonable classification of persons, objects, and transactions by the law. Reason (R): For a classification to be reasonable, it must be based on intelligible differentia which has a rational nexus with the object sought to be achieved by the statute.

Explanation

Article 14 prohibits arbitrary class legislation but allows for reasonable classification. For a classification to be valid, it must satisfy two conditions: it must be based on an intelligible differentia and there must be a rational nexus between the differentia and the object of the law. Reason R correctly explains the legal test used to determine if a classification is constitutional.

75

The writ of Certiorari is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal to:

Explanation

Certiorari is a corrective writ issued by a superior court to a lower court or tribunal. Its primary purpose is to transfer a pending case for trial or to squash an order already passed by the lower body. It is issued on grounds of excess of jurisdiction, lack of jurisdiction, or an error of law apparent on the record.

76

Consider the following statements: Statement I: The State can regulate or restrict any economic, financial, political, or other secular activity associated with religious practice under Article 25. Statement II: The right to freedom of religion under Article 25 is absolute and immune from State intervention to ensure public morality. Which of the following is correct?

Explanation

Article 25(2) allows the State to regulate secular activities associated with religion, making the first statement correct. However, the second statement is incorrect because the right to freedom of religion is not absolute; it is explicitly subject to public order, morality, health, and other fundamental rights. This ensures that religious practices do not override the essential interests of society.

77

Match the headings in List I with the articles in List II and select the correct answer using the options given below: List I: (Fundamental Right Heading) A. Right to Equality B. Right to Freedom C. Right against Exploitation D. Cultural and Educational Rights List II: (Articles) i. Articles 23 and 24 ii. Articles 14 to 18 iii. Articles 29 and 30 iv. Articles 19 to 22

Explanation

This match organizes the Fundamental Rights categories: Right to Equality spans Articles 14-18. Right to Freedom includes Articles 19-22. Right against Exploitation consists of Articles 23 and Cultural and Educational Rights are covered in Articles 29 and This structural division helps in understanding the different dimensions of civil liberties and social protections provided by the Indian Constitution for all citizens.

78

Which of the following is the most accurate distinction between Article 23 and Article 24?

Explanation

Article 23 is a broad provision that prohibits human trafficking, begar, and all other forms of forced labor. In contrast, Article 24 focuses specifically on protecting children, prohibiting the employment of those under 14 in factories, mines, and other hazardous occupations. Both articles are part of the Right against Exploitation, aiming to protect vulnerable individuals from coercive and exploitative practices.

79

Consider the following statements regarding the characteristics of Fundamental Rights in India: I. They are absolute and not subject to any restrictions. II. Some of them are negative in character, placing limitations on the authority of the State. III. They are justiciable, allowing persons to move the courts for their enforcement. IV. They are permanent and cannot be amended or repealed by the Parliament. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

Explanation

Fundamental Rights are not absolute but qualified, as the State can impose reasonable restrictions. They are not permanent and can be amended by Parliament. However, they are negative in character as they limit State power, and they are justiciable, meaning they can be enforced through courts, making the two specified statements about their character and enforceability correctly defined.

80

An individual illegally assumes a public office to which they are not entitled. This directly results in a citizen filing a petition in the High Court. Which writ is the court most likely to issue?

Explanation

Quo Warranto literally means by what authority or warrant. It is issued by the court to enquire into the legality of the claim which a person asserts to a public office. If it is found that the person is not entitled to the office, the court can prevent them from acting in that capacity and declare the office vacant.

81

The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002, inserted which of the following provisions into Part III of the Constitution?

Explanation

Provision of free and compulsory education for ages 6 to The 86th Amendment Act of 2002 was a landmark in the field of education. It inserted Article 21A into Part III of the Constitution, making free and compulsory education for children between 6 and 14 years a fundamental right. It also amended Article 45 and added a new fundamental duty under Article 51A, creating a comprehensive framework for education.

82

Match the writs in List I with the literal meanings in List II and select the correct answer using the options given below: List I: (Writ) A. Habeas Corpus B. Mandamus C. Quo Warranto D. Certiorari List II: (Literal Meaning) i. To be certified ii. By what authority or warrant iii. We command iv. To have the body of

Explanation

These writs have distinct literal meanings in Latin. Habeas Corpus means to have the body of. Mandamus translates to we command. Quo Warranto means by what authority or warrant. Certiorari means to be certified or informed. Understanding these meanings is crucial as they reflect the nature and purpose of each writ in the judicial enforcement of fundamental rights.

83

Which of the following statements about the Right to Property is incorrect?

Explanation

The Right to Property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights by the 44th Amendment Act in However, it was not completely abolished. It remains a constitutional and legal right under Article 300A, which states that no person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law. Thus, while it is no longer a fundamental right, it is recognized.

84

Consider the following grounds: I. Defamation II. Contempt of court III. Friendly relations with foreign states IV. Public health V. Security of the State On which of the above grounds can reasonable restrictions be imposed on the freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(2)?

Explanation

Under Article 19(2), speech can be restricted on grounds of defamation, contempt of court, friendly relations with foreign states, and security of the State, along with public order, decency, morality, and sovereignty. Public health is a ground for restricting movement and residence under Article 19(5), but it is not listed as a ground for restricting freedom of speech and expression.

85

Which of the following does NOT fall under the Right to Freedom of Religion (Articles 25-28)?

Explanation

Article 27 actually provides freedom from payment of taxes for the promotion of any particular religion. It prevents the State from using tax proceeds to favor one religion over another. Other options, including freedom to manage religious affairs and freedom of conscience, are indeed core components of the Right to Freedom of Religion in the Indian Constitution under Articles 25 to

86

Which of the following represents the correct sequence of Fundamental Rights categories as they appear in Part III of the Constitution?

Explanation

Part III of the Constitution presents Fundamental Rights in a systematic order. It begins with the Right to Equality (Articles 14-18), followed by the Right to Freedom (Articles 19-22). The Right against Exploitation (Articles 23-24) comes third, and the Right to Freedom of Religion (Articles 25-28) follows. This sequence reflects the logical progression of rights from basic equality to complex liberties.

87

The following question consists of two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the options given below: Assertion (A): Article 17 has abolished untouchability and made its practice an offence punishable in accordance with law. Reason (R): The Parliament enacted the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955, to prescribe punishment for the practice of untouchability.

Explanation

Article 17 is a significant social provision that abolished untouchability and mandated punishment for its practice. To give effect to this article, Parliament enacted the Untouchability (Offences) Act, 1955, later renamed the Protection of Civil Rights Act, The Reason correctly explains how the constitutional mandate in the Assertion is practically implemented through legislative action and penal measures.

88

An individual wishes to practice medicine but does not possess a medical degree. The State prevents him from doing so. Under Article 19(6), the State is empowered to:

Explanation

Article 19(1)(g) grants the right to practice any profession or carry on any occupation, trade, or business. However, Article 19(6) allows the State to impose reasonable restrictions, including the requirement of professional or technical qualifications. This ensures that individuals practicing specialized fields like medicine possess the necessary expertise to protect public health, preventing unqualified persons from providing critical services.

89

Consider the following statements regarding the right against self-incrimination under Article 20(3): I. It extends to both oral evidence and documentary evidence. II. It extends to the compulsory production of material objects or blood specimens. III. It applies only to criminal proceedings, not to civil proceedings. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

Explanation

The right against self-incrimination under Article 20(3) protects an accused from being compelled to provide oral or documentary evidence against themselves. However, the Supreme Court ruled that it does not extend to material objects, blood samples, or thumb impressions. Furthermore, this right is strictly available in criminal proceedings, not in civil cases where different rules of evidence apply.

90

The doctrine under Article 13 which states that if an unconstitutional provision of a law can be separated from the constitutional part, only the unconstitutional provision will be void, is known as:

Explanation

The doctrine of severability, associated with Article 13, states that if only a part of a law is unconstitutional, only that specific part will be declared void, provided it can be separated from the rest of the statute. If the valid and invalid parts are so inextricably linked that they cannot be separated, the entire law is struck down by the court.

91

Under Article 35 of the Constitution, the power to make laws prescribing punishment for offences such as untouchability and human trafficking is vested in:

Explanation

Article 35 vests the power to make laws to give effect to certain fundamental rights and to prescribe punishment for their violation exclusively in the Parliament. This ensures uniformity in the nature of these rights and the punishments for their infringement throughout the country. State Legislatures are specifically excluded from making laws on these subjects to maintain national standard protections.

92

Arrange the following words in the sequence they appear in Article 25(1) referring to the freedom of religion: I. Practice II. Profess III. Propagate IV. Conscience Which of the following represents the correct sequence?

Explanation

Article 25(1) of the Indian Constitution states that subject to public order, morality, and health, all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess, practice, and propagate religion. The correct sequence of these terms as they appear in the constitutional text is conscience, profess, practice, and then propagate, outlining the individual’s religious rights.

93

Find the odd one out regarding Fundamental Rights available only to citizens of India and NOT to foreigners:

Explanation

Article 21, which guarantees the right to life and personal liberty, is available to all persons, whether they are citizens or foreigners. On the other hand, Articles 15 (non-discrimination), 16 (public employment), and 29 (cultural rights) are part of the specific set of fundamental rights that are reserved exclusively for citizens of India, reflecting the distinct legal status of citizenship.

94

Consider the following elements: I. Equality before the law II. Equal protection of the laws III. Protection against arbitrary state action IV. Absence of any special privileges V. Absolute immunity for the President and Governors in all matters Which of the above elements correctly reflects the attributes and interpretations of Article 14?

Explanation

Article 14 includes equality before the law, equal protection of the laws, and protection against arbitrary state action. It also signifies the absence of special privileges. However, the immunity granted to the President and Governors under Article 361 is an exception to the rule of equality, rather than an attribute of Article 14 itself. Therefore, that specific statement is not an attribute.

95

Which of the following statements concerning Article 27 (Freedom as to payment of taxes for promotion of any particular religion) is correct?

Explanation

Article 27 prohibits the State from compelling any person to pay taxes for the promotion or maintenance of any particular religion or religious denomination. This means public money collected through taxes cannot be used to favor any one religion. However, the State can levy a fee for providing services or regulating religious activities, as a fee is distinct from a tax.

96

Consider the following statements: Statement I: Article 29 guarantees the protection of interests of both religious and linguistic minorities. Statement II: The Supreme Court has ruled that the right to conserve language under Article 29 includes the right to agitate for the protection of the language. Which of the following is correct?

Explanation

Article 29 protects the interests of both religious and linguistic minorities. The Supreme Court has interpreted the right to conserve language broadly to include the right to agitate for its protection. This means that political agitation or movements aimed at preserving a language are protected under this fundamental right, ensuring that communities can actively work to maintain their unique linguistic identity.

97

Match the provisions in List I with the relevant articles in List II and select the correct answer using the options given below: List I: (Provision) A. Abolition of Untouchability B. Equality of opportunity in public employment C. Right to elementary education D. Freedom of speech and expression List II: (Relevant Article) i. Article 16 ii. Article 17 iii. Article 19(1)(a) iv. Article 21A

Explanation

This matching exercise correctly pairs key constitutional provisions with their corresponding articles. Article 17 deals with the abolition of untouchability, while Article 16 ensures equality of opportunity in public employment. Article 21A provides for the right to elementary education, and Article 19(1)(a) guarantees the fundamental freedom of speech and expression to all citizens of India, forming their core liberties.

98

If a person is unlawfully arrested and detained without being informed of the grounds of arrest, which specific Fundamental Rights are immediately violated?

Explanation

Unlawful arrest and detention without being informed of the grounds violate both Article 21 and Article Article 21 protects personal liberty, while Article 22 provides specific procedural safeguards for arrested persons, including the right to be informed of the grounds of arrest, the right to consult a legal practitioner, and the right to be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours.

99

Consider the following criteria used by the Supreme Court to determine if a body falls under “other authorities” in Article 12: I. Entire share capital is held by the government II. The body enjoys monopoly status conferred by the State III. Deep and pervasive State control IV. The body only employs citizens of India Which of the above criteria are correct?

Explanation

The Supreme Court, in cases like Ajay Hasia, laid down criteria to identify State instrumentalities under Article These include full government share capital, monopoly status granted by the State, and deep and pervasive state control. The citizenship of employees is not a criterion used to determine if a body functions as an authority or an agency of the State.

100

What is the primary purpose of the constitutional remedy provided under Article 32?

Explanation

The primary purpose of Article 32 is to provide an effective and summary remedy for the protection of Fundamental Rights. It gives individuals the right to directly approach the Supreme Court, bypassing lower courts. This ensures that fundamental rights are not mere declarations but are enforceable through writs, providing a swift mechanism to correct any violations of these essential constitutional guarantees.

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RPSC Polity — Chapter 2: Fundamental Rights. 100 multiple-choice questions with answers and explanations, compiled from the RPSC RAS Prelims General Knowledge Polity question bank for revision and self-assessment.

For practice only. Verify critical facts against the official RPSC syllabus and standard textbooks.

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