Q31. What is the maximum period for which an ordinance promulgated by the Governor can remain in force without the approval of the state legislature?
State Executive: Governor, Chief Minister and Council of Ministers: RAS Prelims MCQs
78 RAS Prelims MCQs on the State Executive cover the Governor’s office and powers, the Chief Minister and the Council of Ministers. The articles on the Governor, the pardoning power, the status of ministerial advice and facts about Rajasthan’s executive are asked as facts, statements and sequences.
Practice questions based on the RPSC RAS Prelims syllabus. They follow the exam pattern but are not past-paper questions.
Showing 31–40 of 78 questions
Q32. What was a significant recommendation of the Sarkaria Commission regarding the appointment of a Governor?
Explanation
The Sarkaria Commission recommended that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the state who has not been active in local politics recently. This person should be a detached figure without intense political links. These recommendations aimed to preserve the neutrality of the Governor’s office and prevent it from becoming a tool for partisan political interference. Such a person is more likely to act impartially during political crises. By appointing someone from outside the state, the central government can avoid local political entanglements. This detached position is crucial for the Governor to effectively serve as a constitutional guardian and a bridge between the Union and the states.
Q33. Select the correct sequential order of the actions typically taken by the Governor in the event of a state constitutional crisis under Article 356:
Explanation
During a constitutional crisis, the Governor first observes the breakdown of constitutional machinery. Then, the situation is assessed to determine if the government can continue. A formal report is submitted to the President based on this assessment. Finally, if the President is satisfied, a proclamation of President’s Rule is issued under Article 356 to stabilize the state administration. This process follows a logical sequence aimed at restoring constitutional order. The Governor’s assessment is critical as it provides the factual basis for the President’s action. By following these steps, the Union government can intervene in a state only when it is clear that the normal constitutional processes have failed.
Q34. If the Governor of a state wishes to resign before the completion of his five-year term, to whom must he address his resignation letter?
Explanation
If a Governor decides to resign before their five-year term ends, they must submit a formal resignation letter addressed to the President of India. Since the President is the appointing authority for the Governor, the resignation must also be directed to them. This procedural requirement maintains the hierarchical relationship between the head of the Union and the state’s nominal head. The President accepts the resignation and makes alternative arrangements for the state’s administration. This process ensures a smooth transition and ensures that the vacancy is filled according to constitutional norms. The requirement to address the President reinforces the fact that the Governor is an appointee of the central executive authority.
Q35. Who among the following administers the oath of office to the Governor?
Explanation
The oath of office to the Governor is administered by the Chief Justice of the concerned State High Court. In their absence, the senior-most judge of that High Court performs this duty. This process ensures that the Governor is formally sworn into office by a high judicial authority, emphasizing the legal and constitutional solemnity of the gubernatorial position. The oath binds the Governor to protect and defend the Constitution and the law. By having the state’s highest judicial officer administer the oath, the Constitution underscores the importance of the office. This ceremonial yet legal requirement marks the official commencement of the Governor’s duties and responsibilities within the state.
Q36. Read the following statements regarding the powers and functions of the Chief Minister:
I. He advises the Governor with regard to the summoning and proroguing of the sessions of the state legislature.
II. He is the chief spokesman of the state government.
III. He has the final authority to decide the disqualification of a member of the legislative assembly under the anti-defection law.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
I. He advises the Governor with regard to the summoning and proroguing of the sessions of the state legislature.
II. He is the chief spokesman of the state government.
III. He has the final authority to decide the disqualification of a member of the legislative assembly under the anti-defection law.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Explanation
The Chief Minister advises the Governor on summoning and proroguing legislative sessions and serves as the primary spokesperson for the state government. However, the final authority to decide on the disqualification of a member under the anti-defection law rests with the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly or the Chairman of the Legislative Council, not the Chief Minister of the state. This distinction preserves the independence of the legislative presiding officers. While the Chief Minister leads the executive and influences policy, the management of internal house discipline and membership issues under the Tenth Schedule is a legislative function. This separation ensures that disqualification decisions are handled within the legislative framework rather than by the executive.
Q37. Arrange the following stages of a minister’s induction and functioning in the correct sequence:
I. Allocation of a specific portfolio
II. Taking the oath of office and secrecy
III. Appointment by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister
IV. Assuming charge of the concerned department
Select the correct order:
I. Allocation of a specific portfolio
II. Taking the oath of office and secrecy
III. Appointment by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister
IV. Assuming charge of the concerned department
Select the correct order:
Explanation
The induction of a minister begins with their appointment by the Governor on the Chief Minister’s advice. Following this, the minister takes the oath of office and secrecy. Portfolios are then allocated by the Chief Minister. Finally, the minister assumes charge of their respective department. This sequence ensures that all legal and procedural requirements for ministerial functioning are met. Each step is necessary for the formal establishment of a minister’s authority. The appointment provides the legal basis, the oath provides the constitutional commitment, and the portfolio allocation defines the specific area of responsibility. Together, these steps allow a minister to begin their administrative work as part of the state’s executive branch.
Q38. In the event of the sudden death of a Chief Minister while in office, what is the immediate constitutional implication for the Council of Ministers?
Explanation
If a Chief Minister dies suddenly while in office, the Council of Ministers is automatically dissolved. This occurs because the Council exists only as long as its head is in office. While the ruling party typically elects a new leader to be appointed as the next Chief Minister, the previous ministry ceases to exist legally at the moment of the CM’s death. This principle highlights the central role of the Chief Minister in the parliamentary system. The Council is a team led by the Chief Minister, and its existence is tied to that leadership. A new Council must be formed and sworn in under the leadership of the successor to restore the executive machinery.
Q39. What is the constitutional limit on the size of the Council of Ministers in a state like Rajasthan?
Explanation
The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003 established that the total number of ministers, including the Chief Minister, in a state cannot exceed 15 percent of the total membership of the Legislative Assembly. This limit prevents the creation of oversized cabinets for political reasons. For smaller states, the minimum number of ministers is fixed at twelve for administrative efficiency. This rule ensures that the size of the government remains proportional to the size of the legislature. It discourages the use of ministerial positions as a means to satisfy political factions. By capping the cabinet size, the amendment promotes lean and efficient governance while maintaining the necessary administrative capacity for the state.
Q40. Match the items in List I with those in List II and select the correct answer:
| Concept/Provision | Associated Article/Detail |
|---|---|
| A. Collective Responsibility | i. 12 (including Chief Minister) |
| B. Individual Responsibility | ii. Article 164(2) |
| C. Minimum number of ministers in a state | iii. 15% of the total strength of the Assembly |
| D. Maximum size of Council of Ministers | iv. Article 164(1) Options: |
Explanation
Collective responsibility is enshrined in Article 164(2), while individual responsibility is covered under Article 164(1). The 15 percent limit on the size of the Council and the minimum requirement of twelve ministers are key structural provisions. These rules and articles define the accountability and size of the state executive, ensuring both democratic control and administrative stability. Together, these provisions create a disciplined and responsible executive body. Collective responsibility ensures the ministry acts as a unit, while individual responsibility links each minister to the Governor through the Chief Minister. The size limits ensure that the cabinet remains manageable and focused on effective governance rather than political patronage.Answer key for these questions
| Q | Correct answer |
|---|---|
| 31 | (c) Six months and six weeks |
| 32 | (c) The Governor should be an eminent person from outside the state and a detached figure. |
| 33 | (b) Breakdown of constitutional machinery - Assessment of situation - Submission of report to President - Proclamation of President’s Rule |
| 34 | (b) The President of India |
| 35 | (d) The Chief Justice of the concerned State High Court |
| 36 | (a) Only I and II |
| 37 | (a) III, II, I, IV |
| 38 | (a) The Council of Ministers stands dissolved automatically. |
| 39 | (b) It cannot exceed 15 percent of the Assembly membership, including the Chief Minister. |
| 40 | (a) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii |
Key facts from State Executive: Governor, Chief Minister and Council of Ministers
- Article 153 provides that there shall be a Governor for each State.
- Article 161 gives the Governor the power to grant pardons for offences against State laws.
- Article 361 protects the Governor from answering to any court for the exercise of his powers.
- Tikaram Paliwal was the first elected Chief Minister of Rajasthan.
- A minister in charge of tribal welfare is constitutionally required in Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha.
- The advice tendered by the Council of Ministers to the Governor cannot be inquired into by any court.
Frequently asked questions
How many RAS Prelims practice MCQs are there on State Executive: Governor, Chief Minister and Council of Ministers?
This page has 78 practice MCQs on State Executive: Governor, Chief Minister and Council of Ministers (Rajasthan Polity and Administration). Each has the correct answer, and most have an explanation.
Which Article gives the Governor the power to grant pardons?
Article 161. It lets the Governor grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment for offences against State laws. The President’s power in Article 72 is wider, and it includes court-martial and death sentences.
Who was the first elected Chief Minister of Rajasthan?
Tikaram Paliwal, who headed the first elected ministry of the State after the 1951-52 general election. Before him, the State was led by appointed or interim heads during the integration phase.
Can courts examine the advice given to the Governor?
No. Article 163(3) says that the question whether any advice was given by the Ministers to the Governor, and what it was, shall not be inquired into in any court.