Q2251. The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003, which placed a ceiling on the size of the Council of Ministers, amended which Article of the Constitution?
RAS Prelims MCQ Practice
9,654 RAS Prelims practice MCQs with the correct answer and a clear explanation for each. Filter by subject and chapter.
Practice questions based on the RPSC RAS Prelims syllabus. They follow the exam pattern but are not past-paper questions.
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Q2252. In the United States, maize (corn) is primarily utilized for which of the following purposes?
Explanation
In the United States, the vast majority of maize, commonly known as corn, is utilized as livestock feed to support the massive meat and dairy industries. It is a high-energy source for cattle, hogs, and poultry. While some corn is used for human consumption and industrial products like ethanol, its primary economic role is supporting the animal agriculture sector.
Q2253. Match the type of grant in List I with its targeted outcome or feature in List II:
Choose the correct answer:
| Type of Grant | Targeted outcome/Feature |
|---|---|
| A. Revenue Deficit Grants | i. Empowerment of PRIs and ULBs |
| B. State Disaster Risk Management Fund (SDRMF) | ii. Meeting the assessed gap in revenue accounts |
| C. Sector-specific Grants | iii. Enhancing health systems and education quality |
| D. Local Body Grants | iv. Mitigation and capacity building for natural calamities |
Explanation
Fiscal federalism involves various grants to support specific state needs and local administration. Revenue deficit grants address the gap in state budgets, while the disaster risk management fund provides for natural calamities. Sector-specific grants target improvements in critical areas like health. Local body grants empower grassroots governance by providing essential funding for rural and urban administrative units throughout the Indian federation.
Q2254. A mutation that involves the substitution of a single base pair in the DNA sequence is known as a:
Explanation
A point mutation is a type of genetic alteration where a single nucleotide base is changed, inserted, or deleted from a DNA or RNA sequence. When one base is substituted for another, it can result in various outcomes, such as changing a single amino acid in a protein or having no effect at all. These mutations are the smallest scale of genetic variation that can occur.
Q2255. Which Kachwaha ruler of Amber gave refuge to Shivaji when he visited the Mughal court at Agra?
Explanation
When the Maratha leader Shivaji visited the Mughal court at Agra in 1666, he was placed under house arrest following a confrontation with Aurangzeb. During this period, Ram Singh I, the son of Mirza Raja Jai Singh, was entrusted with his custody. Ram Singh provided Shivaji with refuge and eventually played a role in facilitating his daring escape from the Mughal capital.
Q2256. Which of the following is NOT generally accepted by modern historians as a major reason for the decline of the Mauryan Empire?
Explanation
While Ashoka adopted the policy of non-violence, historical evidence does not support the claim that he completely disbanded the Mauryan army. A massive standing military remained necessary to maintain order across the vast empire. Modern historians generally attribute the decline to other factors, such as the highly centralized bureaucracy, financial strain from heavy state spending, and the oppressive rule of provincial governors in regions far from the capital.
Q2257. Arrange the following actions in the conventional order they occur when a general election results in a hung assembly:
I. The President invites the leader of the single largest party to form the government.
II. The appointed Prime Minister is asked to seek a vote of confidence in the Lok Sabha.
III. The newly appointed Prime Minister is administered the oath of office and secrecy.
I. The President invites the leader of the single largest party to form the government.
II. The appointed Prime Minister is asked to seek a vote of confidence in the Lok Sabha.
III. The newly appointed Prime Minister is administered the oath of office and secrecy.
Explanation
In a hung assembly, the President first invites the leader of the single largest party or coalition to form the government. The leader then takes the oath of office and secrecy to become the Prime Minister. Finally, the newly appointed Prime Minister is given a specific timeframe, usually one month, to prove their majority by seeking a vote of confidence.
Q2258. Read the following stages of cotton production and processing:
I. Spinning into yarn
II. Harvesting of bolls
III. Ginning (separating seeds from fiber)
IV. Weaving into fabric
Which of the following represents the correct chronological order of these stages?
I. Spinning into yarn
II. Harvesting of bolls
III. Ginning (separating seeds from fiber)
IV. Weaving into fabric
Which of the following represents the correct chronological order of these stages?
Explanation
The production of cotton fabric follows a specific sequence. First, the mature cotton bolls are harvested from the fields. Next, ginning occurs to separate the seeds from the cotton fibers. These fibers are then spun into yarn through various mechanical processes. Finally, the yarn is woven into fabric on looms. This progression transforms the raw product into a finished textile.
Q2259. Given below are two statements, one labeled as
Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Article 275 of the Constitution provides for statutory grants-in-aid to States in need of assistance.
Reason (R): These grants are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India and are determined based on the recommendations of the Finance Commission.
Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Article 275 of the Constitution provides for statutory grants-in-aid to States in need of assistance.
Reason (R): These grants are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India and are determined based on the recommendations of the Finance Commission.
Explanation
Article 275 provides for statutory grants-in-aid to states that require financial assistance. These grants are charged directly on the Consolidated Fund of India, making them mandatory once approved. The Finance Commission determines the eligibility and amount for these grants, ensuring that the distribution is based on objective fiscal needs rather than the discretionary preferences of the central government.
Q2260. Given below are two statements, one labeled as
Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Frameshift mutations generally have a more severe effect on protein function than point mutations.
Reason (R): Frameshift mutations alter the entire reading frame of the mRNA downstream of the mutation site.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Frameshift mutations generally have a more severe effect on protein function than point mutations.
Reason (R): Frameshift mutations alter the entire reading frame of the mRNA downstream of the mutation site.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Explanation
Frameshift mutations occur when nucleotides are inserted or deleted in numbers not divisible by three. Because the genetic code is read in triplets, this shifts the entire reading frame for all subsequent codons. This usually results in a completely different and often non-functional protein. In contrast, a point mutation typically affects only one codon, making its impact generally less severe than a frameshift.Answer key for these questions
| Q | Correct answer |
|---|---|
| 2251 | (b) Article 75 |
| 2252 | (c) Used as livestock feed to support the meat and dairy industries. |
| 2253 | (a) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i |
| 2254 | (c) Point mutation |
| 2255 | (a) Ram Singh I |
| 2256 | (a) Ashoka’s total disbandment of the army out of extreme pacifism. |
| 2257 | (b) I, III, II |
| 2258 | (a) II, III, I, IV |
| 2259 | (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. |
| 2260 | (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. |
Frequently asked questions
How many RAS Prelims practice MCQs are there on RAS Prelims?
This page has 9654 practice MCQs on the RAS Prelims syllabus. Each has the correct answer, and most have an explanation.
How should I practise MCQs for RAS Prelims?
Attempt each question first, then open the answer and read the explanation. Practise one chapter at a time, note the facts you got wrong and revise them. Repeat the chapter after a few days.
Are these actual RAS Prelims past-paper questions?
No. These are practice questions written for the RAS Prelims syllabus. They follow the pattern the exam uses: factual questions, statement-based questions, match-the-list and assertion-reason.