Q11. Which among the following Constitutional Amendment Acts authorized the President to require the Council of Ministers to reconsider such advice, either generally or otherwise?
Union Executive: President, Vice President, Prime Minister and Cabinet: RAS Prelims MCQs
100 RAS Prelims MCQs on the Union Executive cover the election and powers of the President, the Vice President, the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers. The electoral college, the oath, disputes over elections, the veto powers, ordinances and the nominal head principle are asked as articles, facts and statements.
Practice questions based on the RPSC RAS Prelims syllabus. They follow the exam pattern but are not past-paper questions.
Showing 11–20 of 100 questions
Q12. Arrange the following steps of the Presidential Impeachment process in the correct chronological order:
I. Passing of the resolution by two-thirds majority of the total membership of the initiating House.
II. Investigation of the charges by the other House.
III. Introduction of a resolution with 14 days advance notice signed by one-fourth members.
IV. Passing of the resolution by two-thirds majority of the total membership of the investigating House.
I. Passing of the resolution by two-thirds majority of the total membership of the initiating House.
II. Investigation of the charges by the other House.
III. Introduction of a resolution with 14 days advance notice signed by one-fourth members.
IV. Passing of the resolution by two-thirds majority of the total membership of the investigating House.
Explanation
The impeachment process begins with a resolution signed by one-fourth of the House members after a fourteen-day notice. This resolution must be passed by a two-thirds majority of the total membership. The other House then investigates the charges. If the investigating House also passes the resolution with a two-thirds majority of its total membership, the President is removed from office.
Q13. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
| Pardoning Powers of the President | Meaning |
|---|---|
| A. Pardon | i. Substitution of one form of punishment for a lighter form |
| B. Commutation | ii. Reducing the period of sentence without changing its character |
| C. Remission | iii. Awarding a lesser sentence in place of one originally awarded due to some special fact |
| D. Respite | iv. Completely absolves the convict from all sentences, punishments and disqualifications |
Explanation
The President possesses various pardoning powers under Article 72. A pardon completely absolves the convict. Commutation involves substituting a punishment with a lighter form. Remission reduces the sentence’s duration without changing its nature. Respite awards a lesser sentence due to special facts, like pregnancy. These powers provide a final opportunity to correct judicial errors or provide relief on humanitarian grounds.
Q14. Which of the following statements about the electoral college of the President is correct?
Explanation
The presidential electoral college includes elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the legislative assemblies of the states. Significantly, the 70th Amendment Act of 1992 included the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of Delhi and Puducherry. Nominated members of Parliament and state assemblies, and all members of legislative councils, are excluded from this specific electoral voting process.
Q15. Consider the following statements regarding the powers of the President of India:
I. He appoints the Chief Election Commissioner.
II. He causes the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General to be laid before Parliament.
III. He can promulgate ordinances when both the Houses of Parliament are not in session.
IV. He appoints the Chief Minister of a State.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
I. He appoints the Chief Election Commissioner.
II. He causes the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General to be laid before Parliament.
III. He can promulgate ordinances when both the Houses of Parliament are not in session.
IV. He appoints the Chief Minister of a State.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Explanation
The President holds wide-ranging powers, including the appointment of the Chief Election Commissioner and other key officials. He is responsible for placing reports from the Comptroller and Auditor General before Parliament. Additionally, under Article 123, he can promulgate ordinances when Parliament is not in session. However, the appointment of a State Chief Minister is the constitutional duty of the Governor.
Q16. The formula for determining the value of the vote of an MLA in the Presidential election is:
Explanation
The value of an MLA’s vote is determined to ensure parity between different states. It is calculated by dividing the total population of the state by the total number of elected members in the State Legislative Assembly. This figure is then further divided by one thousand. This process helps maintain a proportional representation of the states within the presidential election framework.
Q17. Which of the following acts does NOT require the prior recommendation of the President for introduction in the Parliament?
Explanation
Certain bills require the President’s prior recommendation for introduction, such as money bills or those altering state boundaries. However, a bill for amending the Constitution under Article 368 does not require such recommendation. It can be introduced in either House of Parliament by a minister or a private member without the President’s preliminary consent or any formal prior approval.
Q18. Identify the incorrect pair regarding the Emergency powers of the President:
Explanation
The Constitution outlines emergency provisions in Part XVIII. Article 352 deals with National Emergency, Article 356 with State Emergency, and Article 360 with Financial Emergency. Article 359 describes the suspension of the enforcement of fundamental rights during an emergency. In contrast, Article 355 imposes a duty on the Union to protect states against external aggression and internal disturbances.
Q19. Consider the following statements regarding the Veto Powers of the President of India:
I. The President enjoys absolute veto over private members’ bills.
II. The President can exercise suspensive veto over money bills.
III. The President has no veto power in respect of a constitutional amendment bill.
IV. The pocket veto of the Indian President is broader than that of the American President.
V. The absolute veto can be exercised for government bills when the cabinet resigns before presidential assent.
Which of the above statements are correct?
I. The President enjoys absolute veto over private members’ bills.
II. The President can exercise suspensive veto over money bills.
III. The President has no veto power in respect of a constitutional amendment bill.
IV. The pocket veto of the Indian President is broader than that of the American President.
V. The absolute veto can be exercised for government bills when the cabinet resigns before presidential assent.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Explanation
The President has distinct veto powers over legislation. Absolute veto applies to private members’ bills or when a cabinet resigns. Suspensive veto cannot be used for money bills. Under the 24th Amendment, the President must give assent to constitutional amendment bills. The Indian pocket veto is broader than the American version because the Indian Constitution prescribes no specific time limit.
Q20. The President of India exercises his absolute veto power in which of the following cases?
Explanation
Absolute veto refers to the power of the President to withhold assent to a bill, causing it to lapse. This power is typically exercised in two instances: concerning private members’ bills and when the cabinet resigns after the bill is passed but before assent is given. Unlike the suspensive veto, the bill cannot be revived once this power is exercised.Answer key for these questions
| Q | Correct answer |
|---|---|
| 11 | (b) 44th Amendment Act |
| 12 | (a) III, I, II, IV |
| 13 | (a) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii |
| 14 | (d) Elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of Delhi and Puducherry. |
| 15 | (a) I, II and III |
| 16 | (b) Total population of the State divided by total number of elected MLAs of the State, divided by 1000. |
| 17 | (b) A bill for the amendment of the Constitution under Article 368 |
| 18 | (a) Suspension of Fundamental Rights during Emergency: Article 355 |
| 19 | (a) I, III, IV and V |
| 20 | (d) When a private member’s bill is passed by the Parliament. |
Key facts from Union Executive: President, Vice President, Prime Minister and Cabinet
- Article 52 provides for a President and Article 53 vests the executive power of the Union in him.
- The Chief Justice of India administers the oath to the President, and disputes about the election go to the Supreme Court.
- The value of the vote of an MLA of Rajasthan in the Presidential election is 129.
- The Vice President can act as President for up to six months; a Minister who is not a member of either House can serve up to six months.
- Giani Zail Singh used the pocket veto on the Indian Post Office (Amendment) Bill.
- The D. C. Wadhwa case (1987) was about repeated re-promulgation of ordinances.
Frequently asked questions
How many RAS Prelims practice MCQs are there on Union Executive: President, Vice President, Prime Minister and Cabinet?
This page has 100 practice MCQs on Union Executive: President, Vice President, Prime Minister and Cabinet (Indian Polity and Governance). Each has the correct answer, and most have an explanation.
Who administers the oath to the President of India?
The Chief Justice of India, or in his absence the senior-most judge of the Supreme Court. The Supreme Court also decides any dispute regarding the election of the President under Article 71.
Who used the pocket veto and on which bill?
President Giani Zail Singh used the pocket veto on the Indian Post Office (Amendment) Bill, which Parliament had passed in 1986. He neither signed nor returned it, and the bill lapsed.
What did the D. C. Wadhwa case decide?
The Supreme Court held in 1987 that repeated re-promulgation of ordinances by the executive, without placing them before the Legislature, is a fraud on the Constitution and invalid. The case is the key authority on ordinance-making.