Q81. Which of the following is the odd one out regarding the exclusive powers enjoyed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha but not by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?
Parliament: Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha: RAS Prelims MCQs
100 RAS Prelims MCQs on Parliament cover the composition of both Houses, the election of members, the legislative process, Money Bills and Financial Bills, the no-confidence motion and Parliament’s power to make laws on State subjects. The articles and numbers are asked directly, and the statements test the exact difference between the Houses.
Practice questions based on the RPSC RAS Prelims syllabus. They follow the exam pattern but are not past-paper questions.
Showing 81–90 of 100 questions
Q82. The anti-defection law was added to the Constitution of India in the Tenth Schedule through which Constitutional Amendment Act?
Explanation
The anti-defection law was introduced to curb political instability caused by frequent party switching. It was added to the Indian Constitution as the Tenth Schedule by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1985. This amendment provides the legal framework for disqualifying members of Parliament and state legislatures who defect from their political parties, thereby strengthening the parliamentary democratic system.
Q83. Identify the incorrect statement regarding the exceptions to disqualification under the anti-defection law.
Explanation
Presiding officers are granted a specific exception under the anti-defection law. If a member is elected as the Speaker or Chairman and chooses to voluntarily give up their party membership, they are not disqualified. They can also rejoin their party after leaving the office. Therefore, the statement claiming that such a member would be disqualified for giving up membership.
Q84. Under the Tenth Schedule, an independent member of the Lok Sabha becomes disqualified to remain a member if they:
Explanation
Under the Tenth Schedule, an independent member of the House faces specific restrictions to maintain their non-partisan status. If such a member joins any political party after their election, they are automatically disqualified from remaining a member. This provision ensures that independent candidates do not switch to political parties for personal or political gain after being elected by the voters.
Q85. Match the items in List I with those in List II:
| Type of Member | Condition for Defection under 10th Schedule |
|---|---|
| A. Member of a Political Party | i. Joins a political party after six months from the date of taking a seat in the House |
| B. Independent Member | ii. Voluntarily gives up membership of their political party or votes contrary to party whip |
| C. Nominated Member | iii. Exempted if they voluntarily give up party membership upon election to the office |
| D. Presiding Officer | iv. Joins any political party after the election |
Explanation
The Tenth Schedule defines defection differently for various types of members. A party member defects by voluntarily leaving the party or violating a whip. Independent members are disqualified if they join a party. Nominated members have six months to join a party; otherwise, they are disqualified. Presiding officers are exempt if they resign from their party upon taking office.
Q86. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the judicial review of decisions made under the Tenth Schedule?
Explanation
The Supreme Court clarified the legal status of the presiding officer’s decisions in the Kihoto Hollohan case. It ruled that while the Speaker or Chairman acts as a judge, their decision is subject to judicial review. Courts can intervene on grounds of mala fides, perversity, or violation of constitutional mandates. This ensures that the anti-defection law is not misused.
Q87. The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003 made a significant change to the anti-defection law. What was the primary change regarding group defections?
Explanation
The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003 significantly tightened the anti-defection law. Its primary change was the omission of the ‘split’ provision. Previously, if one-third of a party’s members broke away, it was not considered defection. By removing this exception, the amendment made it harder for groups of legislators to defect, thereby further promoting political stability within the legislative body.
Q88. Consider the following statements regarding the provisions of the Tenth Schedule:
I. A nominated member is disqualified if they join a political party within six months of taking their seat.
II. The presiding officer decides the questions of disqualification of members under the Tenth Schedule.
III. The anti-defection law aims to prevent political defections motivated by the lure of office or material benefits.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
I. A nominated member is disqualified if they join a political party within six months of taking their seat.
II. The presiding officer decides the questions of disqualification of members under the Tenth Schedule.
III. The anti-defection law aims to prevent political defections motivated by the lure of office or material benefits.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Explanation
The anti-defection law empowers the presiding officer of the House to decide on member disqualifications. Its main objective is to prevent opportunistic defections driven by the desire for office or other benefits. However, a nominated member is only disqualified if they join a political party after the six-month grace period has ended. Therefore, only the second and third statements are correct.
Q89. Which Article of the Constitution of India deals with the powers, privileges, and immunities of Parliament and its Members?
Explanation
Article 105 of the Indian Constitution defines the powers, privileges, and immunities of the Houses of Parliament and their members. These privileges are essential for the effective functioning of the legislature. They protect members from external interference and ensure they can perform their duties without fear. This article provides the constitutional foundation for both collective and individual parliamentary rights.
Q90. Given below are two statements, one labeled as
Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): A member of Parliament enjoys absolute freedom of speech inside the House and is not liable to any court proceedings for anything said in the Parliament.
Reason (R): This freedom of speech is subject to the provisions of the Constitution and the rules regulating the procedure of Parliament, such as not discussing the conduct of judges except upon a motion for removal.
Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): A member of Parliament enjoys absolute freedom of speech inside the House and is not liable to any court proceedings for anything said in the Parliament.
Reason (R): This freedom of speech is subject to the provisions of the Constitution and the rules regulating the procedure of Parliament, such as not discussing the conduct of judges except upon a motion for removal.
Explanation
Members of Parliament enjoy absolute freedom of speech within the House, shielding them from legal proceedings regarding their statements. However, this right is not entirely unlimited; it must be exercised according to constitutional provisions and parliamentary rules. For example, discussing a judge’s conduct is generally prohibited. Thus, both statements are true, and the reason correctly explains the scope.Answer key for these questions
| Q | Correct answer |
|---|---|
| 81 | (b) Determining the question of disqualification of a member of the House on grounds of defection. |
| 82 | (c) 52nd Amendment Act, 1985 |
| 83 | (c) If a member, after being elected as the presiding officer of the House, voluntarily gives up the membership of their party, they are disqualified. |
| 84 | (d) Join any political party after their election. |
| 85 | (a) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii |
| 86 | (b) The Supreme Court in Kihoto Hollohan case ruled that the decision of the Speaker is subject to judicial review on the grounds of mala fides or perversity. |
| 87 | (d) It omitted the provision that provided an exception from disqualification in case of a ‘split’ by one-third of members. |
| 88 | (b) II and III only |
| 89 | (c) Article 105 |
| 90 | (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. |
Key facts from Parliament: Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
- Article 79 provides for a Parliament consisting of the President and two Houses; the maximum strength of the Lok Sabha is 550.
- Elected members of the Rajya Sabha are chosen by the elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies, and the Rajya Sabha is a permanent body not subject to dissolution.
- A successful no-confidence motion in the Lok Sabha forces the whole Council of Ministers to resign.
- Article 110 defines a Money Bill; every Money Bill is a Financial Bill, but not every Financial Bill is a Money Bill.
- Under Article 249, a two-thirds majority resolution of the Rajya Sabha lets Parliament legislate on a State List subject for one year at a time.
- The constituent power of Parliament is its power to amend the Constitution.
Frequently asked questions
How many RAS Prelims practice MCQs are there on Parliament: Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha?
This page has 100 practice MCQs on Parliament: Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha (Indian Polity and Governance). Each has the correct answer, and most have an explanation.
Which Article defines a Money Bill?
Article 110. It lists the matters, such as taxation and borrowing, that make a bill a Money Bill. The Lok Sabha Speaker decides whether a bill is a Money Bill, and the Rajya Sabha can only make recommendations.
What happens if a no-confidence motion is passed?
The entire Council of Ministers must resign, because under Article 75 it is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. The Prime Minister tenders the resignation of the government to the President.
Can the Rajya Sabha be dissolved?
No. The Rajya Sabha is a permanent House. One-third of its members retire every second year, so it continues without being dissolved, unlike the Lok Sabha, which can be dissolved.