UPSC 2012 Prelims Questions with Answers

Explanation

Monsoon refers to a seasonal change in wind patterns that results in a shift in precipitation patterns over a region. Monsoons occur primarily in tropical and subtropical regions and are characterized by a wet season and a dry season.

Statement 1 is correct: The monsoon duration decreases from southern India (June-September) to northern India (July-August) due to the gradual weakening of monsoon winds as they move inland. Due to its proximity to the sea, India’s southern region has earlier and longer rainy seasons than its northern region.

Statement 2 is correct: The northern plains experience a rainfall gradient, with higher rainfall in the east (Assam, West Bengal) and decreasing towards the west (Punjab, Rajasthan) due to the weakening of monsoon winds. During the southwest monsoon, Kolkata receives 119 cm, Patna 105 cm, Allahabad 76 cm, and Delhi 56 cm.

Explanation

Arunachal Pradesh has the following mentioned characteristics:

Northern Rajasthan lies approximately between 26°N to 27°N latitude. Arunachal Pradesh (27°N-29°N) closely aligns with this latitude range. Assam (24°N-28°N), Himachal Pradesh (30°N-33°N), and Uttarakhand (29°N-31°N) are either too far north or south. As per the India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2021, Arunachal Pradesh has 82.4% forest cover. While Assam has 35.83%, Himachal Pradesh 27.72%, and Uttarakhand 45.44%. Arunachal Pradesh has over 12% of its forest area designated as Protected Areas, including Namdapha National Park, Pakke Wildlife Sanctuary, and Mouling National Park.

Explanation

Under the text of the Ramsar Convention wetlands are defined as: "areas of marsh, fen, peatland or water, whether natural or artificial, permanent or temporary, with water that is static or flowing, fresh, brackish or salt, including areas of marine water the depth of which at low tide does not exceed six metres". Wetlands in India are vital ecosystems supporting biodiversity, water regulation, and livelihoods. They are classified into coastal and inland wetlands, each with unique ecological and geographical significance.

Statement 1 is correct: Gujarat has the largest area under wetlands in India. It is primarily due to the extensive Rann of Kutch, a seasonal salt marsh, and coastal wetlands like the Gulf of Kutch. According to the National Wetland Inventory and Assessment by the Space Applications Centre (ISRO), Gujarat accounts for ~22.7% of India’s total wetland area.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Inland wetlands (like lakes, rivers, and marshes) cover a larger area than coastal wetlands (like mangroves, estuaries, and lagoons). As per the National Wetland Atlas, inland wetlands constitute ~69% of India’s total wetland area, while coastal wetlands make up ~27%.

Explanation

Dr. Bhimrao Ramaji Ambedkar was born on April 14, 1891. He started the Bahiskrit Bharat newspaper to address the cause of the depressed classes. In 1942, he was appointed to the Executive Council of the Viceroy as a Labour member, in 1946. At the same time he published his book, Who were Shudras? After Independence, in 1947, he was appointed as a Minister of Law and Justice in Nehru’s first cabinet.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Peasants and Workers Party of India was not founded by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar. It was established in 1947 by leaders like Keshavrao Jedhe and Shankarrao More in Maharashtra. The party primarily focused on the issues of peasants and workers but was not directly associated with Ambedkar or his political movements.

Statement 2 is correct: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar founded the All India Scheduled Castes Federation (AISCF) in 1942 to advocate for the rights and representation of Scheduled Castes (Dalits) in India. This party was established to address the social and political marginalization of Dalits and to ensure their participation in the democratic process.

Statement 3 is correct: Dr. Ambedkar founded the Independent Labour Party (ILP) in 1936. The party was established to address the issues of the working class, including laborers and peasants, with a focus on social justice and economic equality. The ILP was not limited to Dalits but sought to unite all oppressed sections of society, including workers and farmers against exploitation and inequality.

Explanation

Mahatma Gandhi undertook a fast unto death in 1932 primarily to oppose the Communal Award announced by British Prime Minister Ramsay MacDonald. On August 16, 1932, Ramsay MacDonald announced the Communal Award which provided separate electorates for different communities, including Dalits (then termed Depressed Classes). This meant Dalits would vote separately from Hindus in elections, a move opposed by Gandhi as he believed it would divide Hindu society permanently. Mahatama Gandhi saw it as a British tactic of "divide and rule" to weaken the unity of Indians. In protest, he began a fast unto death on September 20, 1932, while in Yerwada Jail, Pune. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar eventually negotiated with Gandhi and agreed to the Poona Pact on September 24, 1932. The Poona Pact replaced separate electorates with reserved seats, ensuring fair representation of Dalits in the legislature while keeping the Hindu community intact.

Explanation

PESA 1996. is a vital instrument in promoting participatory democracy and inclusive development in tribal areas. PESA Act, 1996: Key Features

1. Applies to Schedule V Areas: Extends Panchayati Raj provisions to tribal areas.

2. Empowers Gram Sabha (Section 4): Authority over resources, land, markets, and dispute resolution.

3. Recognizes Tribal Rights: Protects customs, traditions, and resource management.

4. Prevents Exploitation: Requires community consent for land acquisition and mining.

5. Promotes Self-Governance: Decentralizes power to tribal communities.

Statement 1 is correct: Under Section 4(m)(iii) of PESA 1996. Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land and to restore any unlawfully alienated land of a scheduled tribe.

Statement 2 is correct: The Gram Sabha, under the PESA Act, was granted wide-ranging powers, including consultation on land acquisition, ownership of minor forest produce, and the right to be consulted on leasing of minor minerals in Scheduled Areas.

Statement 3 is incorrect: As per Section 4(k) and 4(l) of the PESA Act, the Gram Sabha must be consulted before the state grants licenses for minor minerals(not all minerals) in Scheduled Areas.

Explanation

Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) refers to an investment made by an individual or entity from one country into business interests located in another country, with the intent of establishing a lasting interest. This typically involves acquiring a significant degree of influence or control over the foreign company’s operations. In the context of India, FDI includes:

Subsidiaries of Foreign Companies in India are companies incorporated in India that are wholly or majority-owned by foreign parent companies. Majority Foreign Equity Holding in Indian Companies occurs when foreign investors hold more than 50% equity in an Indian company, granting them significant control over its operations. Companies Exclusively Financed by Foreign Companies are entities in India that receive all their capital from foreign investors or parent companies, leading to substantial foreign control. On the other hand, Portfolio Investment refers to investments in a country’s financial assets, such as stocks and bonds, without the intent of controlling or managing the companies. Such investments are typically short-term and speculative in nature. Therefore, Portfolio Investment is not considered a form of FDI.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The World Bank does not determine currency exchange rates; these are influenced by market forces and economic indicators. The World Bank is important to the source of financial and technical assistance to developing countries around the world.

Statement 2 is correct: A major factor influencing a currency’s value is the demand for the goods and services that a country offers. If there’s high global demand for a country’s ex-ports, there will be a higher demand for its currency to purchase those exports. This increased demand will generally push the currency’s value up. On the contrary if demand for a country’s goods and services is low, demand for its currency will be low, putting downward pressure on its value.

Statement 3 is correct: Political stability fosters investor confidence, attracting foreign investment and strengthening the currency. Political instability can lead to capital flight and currency depreciation.

Statement 4 is incorrect: While the economic potential of a country (e.g., growth prospects, productivity, and innovation) can influence long-term currency trends, it is not a direct factor in the day-to-day determination of exchange rates.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The CAG does not exercise exchequer control during emergencies (whether national or financial). The Finance Ministry and the Department of Economic Affairs are responsible for the management of the exchequer during such emergencies. The CAG’s role remains to audit and report on the use of public funds, but it does not have direct control over financial matters during an emergency.

Statement 2 is correct: PAC’s chief function is to examine the audit report of Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) after it is laid in the Parliament. CAG acts as a guide, friend and philosopher of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament.

Statement 3 is correct: Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances.

Statement 4 is incorrect: While dealing with the audit and accounting of government and PSUs, CAG does not have certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law. CAG is merely an advisory body and has some quasi-judicial powers.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: One of the notable recommendations made by the Thirteenth Finance Commission was related to the Goods and Services Tax (GST). The Commission recommended the introduction of a GST system as a comprehensive indirect tax reform. Additionally, it proposed a compensation mechanism for states that would face revenue losses during the implementation of the GST. The compensation package was meant to ensure that states did not suffer a revenue shortfall when transitioning from the existing system of sales tax and other taxes to the unified GST. The implementation of GST was linked to a timeline, and the Commission suggested setting up a GST compensation fund.

Statement 2 is incorrect: While the Thirteenth Finance Commission did acknowledge the importance of utilizing India’s demographic dividend (the large working-age population), it did not specifically design a detailed job creation strategy or suggest a mechanism for creating lakhs of jobs in the next decade. The Commission focused more on fiscal and financial management, including issues related to devolution of funds, and did not specifically lay out detailed employment schemes.

Statement 3 is correct: The Thirteenth Finance Commission recommended a specified share of central taxes to be devolved to local bodies (i.e., rural and urban local bodies) as part of the decentralization process. This was aimed at strengthening local governance and ensuring that local bodies had sufficient funds to implement schemes for development and welfare at the grassroots level.