This page lists 118 previous year UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination (General Studies Paper-I) questions on the UPSC 2004 Prelims. Choose an option to see the correct answer and the full explanation on the same page.
Explanations state facts as they stood in the year each question was asked, so words like “recently” or “currently” refer to that year, not today. For the present position, check the latest Current Affairs.
Showing 51–60 of 118 questions
UPSC 2004Polity · Centre-State Relations
Q51. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India says that the executive power of every State shall be so exercised as not to impede or prejudice the exercise of the executive power of the Union?
Explanation
Article 257 states that the executive power of every State must be exercised in a manner that does not impede or prejudice the exercise of the executive power of the Union. This provision ensures the supremacy of Union executive power in matters where coordination or cooperation is required between Union and State governments.
UPSC 2004Polity · Centre-State Relations
Q52. With reference to the Constitution of India, which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Explanation
Option (b) is incorrect: Stock Exchange is incorrectly matched. It is in the Union List (Entry 48), not the Concurrent List, as it pertains to national economic regulation. Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India, classifies subjects under the Union, State, and Concurrent Lists. Options (a), (c) and (d) are correct:
Forests: Correctly matched. Transferred from the State List to the Concurrent List by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976. Post Office Savings Bank: Correctly matched. It is in the Union List (Entry 39) as postal services are a central function. Public Health: Correctly matched. It is in the State List (Entry 6), reflecting the state’s responsibility for health-related issues.
UPSC 2004Modern History · Prominent Personalities in Modern History
Q53. The name of the famous person of India who returned the Knighthood conferred on him by the British Government as a token of protest against the atrocities in Punjab in 1919 was:
Explanation
Rabindranath Tagore, the Nobel laureate and poet was knighted by the British Crown in 1915. However, in 1919 following the Jallianwala Bagh massacre and the repressive Rowlatt Act he renounced his Knighthood in a letter to the Viceroy, Lord Chelmsford as an act of powerful protest against British atrocities. His act was widely celebrated as a bold statement of defiance.
Additional insight:
In a strongly worded letter to the British Viceroy, Tagore wrote: "The time has come when badges of honor make our shame glaring in their incongruous context of humiliation, and I for my part wish to stand shorn of all special distinctions, by the side of my countrymen."
UPSC 2004Modern History · Prominent Personalities in Modern History
Q54. During the Indian freedom struggle, who among the following proposed that Swaraj should be defined as complete independence free from all foreign control?
Explanation
Maulana Hasrat Mohani, a prominent figure in the Indian freedom movement, was a strong advocate for complete independence from British rule. He was one of the key leaders who pushed for the idea that Swaraj, or self-rule, should be interpreted as absolute freedom, devoid of any foreign influence or control. His stance was a significant departure from the moderate demands for self-governance and paved the way for more radical calls for full sovereignty during the independence struggle. Hasrat Mohani started bringing out a magazine in the name of ‘Urdu-e-Mualla’ in 1903.
UPSC 2004Polity · Local Government: Panchayats and Municipalities
Q55. Assertion (A): The Central Rural Sanitation Programme was launched in 1986 to improve the quality of life of rural people in India. Reason (R): Rural sanitation is a subject in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India. In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
Explanation
Assertion (A) is true: The Central Rural Sanitation Programme (CRSP) was launched in 1986 by the Government of India. It aimed to improve the quality of life of rural people by promoting sanitation and reducing open defecation. Reason (R) is false: Rural sanitation is not under the Concurrent List but falls under the State List (Entry 6: Public Health and Sanitation). States are primarily responsible for implementing sanitation programs, though the central government can initiate schemes like CRSP to supplement state efforts.
UPSC 2004Geography · Indian Geography
Q56. Consider the following statements: 1. Damodar, Valley Corporation is the first multi-purpose river valley project of independent India. 2. Damodar Valley Corporation includes thermal and gas power stations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Damodar Valley Corporation (DVC) was established in 1948, making it India’s first multipurpose river valley project after independence. Operating in West Bengal and Jharkhand, it focuses on flood control, irrigation, hydropower generation, and industrial water supply. DVC manages four major dams (Tilaiya, Konar, Maithon, Panchet) and the Durgapur Barrage. It supports agriculture, industrial development, and electricity distribution across eight states. Inspired by the Tennessee Valley Authority (USA), DVC plays a crucial role in regional development and environmental management.
Statement 2 is correct: The DVC’s infrastructure includes both thermal and gas power stations, in addition to hydroelectric power plants. The DVC has a significant number of coal-based thermal power stations. Some of the major ones include:
Mejia Thermal Power Station (West Bengal) Bokaro Thermal Power Station (Jharkhand) Chandrapura Thermal Power Station (Jharkhand) Durgapur Steel Thermal Power Station (West Bengal) Maithon Gas Turbine Station is a gas-based thermal power plant located at Maithon in the Dhanbad district of Jharkhand. It’s owned and operated by the DVC.
UPSC 2004Geography · Indian Geography
Q57. Consider the following statements: Among the Indian States: 1. Andhra Pradesh has the longest coastline 2. Gujarat has the highest number of airports Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: Andhra Pradesh does not have the longest coastline in India. Gujarat has the longest coast-line among Indian states, stretching approximately 1214 km. Andhra Pradesh ranks second among states with a coastline of around 972 km. When considering both states and Union Territories, Gujarat has the longest coastline among the states, followed by Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu (~1,076 km), and Maharashtra (~720 km). However, the Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands has the longest coastline overall, spanning about 1,962 km.
Statement 2 is incorrect: As of 2004, Maharashtra had the highest number of airports in India, not Gujarat. It included major airports like Mumbai (Chhatrapati Shivaji International Airport), Pune, Nagpur, and others, along with several smaller domestic airports. Even today Gujarat does not have the highest number of airports in India. While Gujarat has a good number of airports, Uttar Pradesh, has the most. The number of airports can also fluctuate with new airports being built. Currently, Uttar Pradesh has the highest number of operational airports in India, with 15 airports. This includes both domestic and international airports, such as Lucknow, Varanasi, Kushinagar, and Ayodhya. The state’s extensive aviation infrastructure supports regional connectivity and economic development.
UPSC 2004Geography · Indian Geography
Q58. Which among the following National Highway Routes is the longest?
Explanation
Option (c) is correct: Among the given options, the longest National Highway route is Kolkata-Hajira, which spans approximately 1,946 km. It connects Kolkata in West Bengal to Hajira in Gujarat, traversing multiple states and serving as a critical east-west corridor.
Option (a), (b) and (d) are incorrect:
The Agra-Mumbai Highway is approximately 1,190 km long. This was a significant route, connecting major cities. Chennai-Thane Highway involves multiple highways. It’s roughly around 1,350-1,400 km. Pune-Machilipatnam Highway is likely in the range of 800-900 km. The longest highway in India is now NH 44. It runs from Srinagar to Kanyakumari, the official length of National Highway 44 is approximately 4,112 kilometers (2,555 miles).
UPSC 2004Geography · Indian Geography
Q59. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
Explanation
Option (a) is incorrect: Tidal phenomena are influenced by the shape of coastal features. A common misconception is that gulfs with narrow openings and wider interiors experience amplified tides. In reality, the opposite is true. Gulfs characterized by wide entrances and narrowing interiors, like a funnel, tend to exhibit higher tides. This occurs because the incoming tidal surge is compressed as it moves into the narrowing gulf, forcing the water level to rise. Options (b), (c) and (d) are correct:
Tidal currents, on the other hand, are generated when a gulf or bay is connected to the open sea through a narrow channel, as the water flows in and out with the tides. A tidal bore occurs when an incoming tide moves into a narrow, shallow, and funnel-shaped estuary, creating a sudden upstream surge of water. The narrowing estuary amplifies the tide’s height and velocity, while the shallow depth slows the river’s flow, allowing the tide to push upstream forcefully. This phenomenon is common in areas with a high tidal range, such as the Hooghly River in India and the Qiantang River in China. The tidal influence on the Hooghly River’s mouth is critical for the Kolkata Port as it facilitates navigation despite the river’s shallow depth. The semi-diurnal tides, with a range of up to 5 meters, help maintain water levels, enabling large vessels to access the port. Additionally, tidal currents assist in flushing out silt and sediments, which would otherwise accumulate and obstruct navigation channels. This natural tidal mechanism, combined with dredging efforts, ensures year-round operability of the port.
UPSC 2004Polity · Constitutional Bodies
Q60. Consider the following tasks: 1. Superintendence, direction and conduct of free and fair elections 2. Preparation of electoral rolls for all elections to the Parliament, state Legislatures and the Office of the President and the Vice-President 3. Giving recognition to political parties and allotting election symbols to political parties and individuals contesting the election. 4. Proclamation of final verdict in case of election disputes. Which of the above are the functions of the Election Commission of India?
Explanation
The Election Commission of India (ECI) is the constitutional authority responsible for ensuring the smooth conduct of elections in the country. Its key functions include:
Statement 1 is correct: The ECI oversees, directs, and conducts free and fair elections across India.
Statement 2 is correct: The ECI prepares and maintains electoral rolls for elections to the Parliament, State Legislatures, and the offices of the President and Vice-President.
Statement 3 is correct: The ECI is responsible for recognizing political parties and assigning election symbols to both political parties and individual candidates.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The proclamation of final verdicts in election disputes falls under the jurisdiction of courts or tribunals, not the Election Commission.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
51
2004
(a) Article 257
52
2004
(b) Stock Exchange: Concurrent List
53
2004
(c) Rabindra Nath Tagore
54
2004
(b) Maulana Hasrat Mohani
55
2004
(c) A is true but R is false.
56
2004
(c) Both 1 and 2
57
2004
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
58
2004
(c) Kolkata-Hajira
59
2004
(a) Gulf with narrow fronts and wider rears experience high tides.
60
2004
(a) 1, 2 and 3
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on all subjects?
This page covers 118 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on the UPSC 2004 Prelims, asked between 1995 to 2024. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
How should I use previous year UPSC questions for Prelims?
Attempt each question first, then open the answer and read the explanation for every option. Repeat by chapter, and track which statements UPSC reuses across years. Previous year questions show the exam pattern and difficulty level.
Which years are covered for all subjects?
Questions on the UPSC 2004 Prelims are available for 30 years, from 1995 to 2024. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.