128 previous year UPSC Prelims questions on the UPSC 2002 Prelims. Choose an option to see the answer and explanation.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 71–80 of 128 questions
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UPSC 2002Modern History · Administrative Changes after 1857
Q71. Which one of the following Acts of British India strengthened the Viceroy’s authority over his Executive Council by substituting "Portfolio" or departmental system for corporate functioning?
Explanation
The Indian Councils Act of 1861 strengthened the Viceroy’s authority over his Executive Council by replacing corporate functioning with a portfolio system. In the portfolio system individual members of the Viceroy’s Executive Council were assigned specific departments to manage, replacing the previous collective decision-making process. This shift strengthened the Viceroy’s authority, enabling more efficient governance. Before the Act, the Council functioned collectively but after it, the Viceroy had greater centralized control with Council members responsible for key areas like finance, law, and home affairs. This reorganization reinforced British control over colonial governance.
UPSC 2002Science and Technology · Physics: Mechanics
Q72. Assertion (A): An iron ball floats on mercury but gets immersed in water. Reason (R): The specific gravity of iron is more than that of mercury. Codes:
Explanation
Density is a measure of how much mass is packed into a given volume. Buoyancy is the tendency of an object to float in a fluid. An object floats if its density is less than the fluid’s density and sinks if its density is greater. If the densities are equal, the object remains neutrally buoyant, neither sinking nor floating. Assertion (A) is true: Iron is denser than water, so it sinks in water. However, mercury is denser than iron, so an iron ball will float on mercury. Reason (R) is false: Specific gravity is the ratio of the density of a substance to the density of a reference substance (usually water). Mercury is denser than iron, so its specific gravity is higher.
UPSC 2002Polity · Higher Judiciary: Supreme Court and High Courts
Q73. The salaries and allowances of the Judges of the High Court are charged to the:
Explanation
The parliament of India, while exercising the power under article 221, has made provision that the salary and Allowances of a HC judge be charged upon the Consolidated fund of State while Pension upon the Consolidated Fund of India. Consolidated Fund of India (Article 266) covers central government expenses, including Supreme Court judges’ salaries. Consolidated Fund of the State (Article 266), includes all state revenues and loans and covers state expenses. The Contingency Fund of India [ Article 267(1)] of the Indian Constitution is a reserve fund for meeting unforeseen and urgent expenditures, placed at the disposal of the President of India. The Contingency Fund of the State [Article 267(2)] of the Indian Constitution, is a reserve for unforeseen and urgent expenditures, available to the Governor of the state.
UPSC 2002Indian Economy · Public Finance
Q74. With reference to the Indian Public Finance, consider the following statements: 1. External liabilities reported in the Union Budget are based on historical exchange rates 2. The continued high borrowing has kept the real interest rates high in the economy 3. The upward trend in the ratio of Fiscal Deficit of GDP a recent years has an adverse effect on private investment 4. Interest payments is the single largest component of the non-plan revenue expenditure of the Union Government Which of these statements are correct?
Explanation
As per the Economic Survey 2001-02, the fiscal deficit and interest payments remain key challenges in public finance management.
Statement 1 is correct: The Union Budget reports external debt at historical exchange rates, meaning the exchange rates prevailing at the time the debt was incurred. This method reflects the original cost of the debt in domestic currency terms.
Statement 2 is correct: Persistent high government borrowing can lead to an increase in real interest rates. This occurs because substantial borrowing may crowd out private investment, leading to higher demand for available funds and elevated interest rates.
Statement 3 is correct: An increasing Fiscal Deficit to GDP ratio indicates that the government is borrowing more relative to the size of the economy. This can crowd out private investment by reducing the funds available for private entities and potentially increasing interest rates, making borrowing more expensive for businesses.
Statement 4 is correct: Non-plan revenue expenditure includes obligatory expenses such as interest payments, pensions, and statutory transfers to states. Among these, interest payments have historically been the largest component.
UPSC 2002Science and Technology · Physics: Heat and Thermodynamics
Q75. A hollow sphere of radius R, a hollow cube of side R and a thin circular plate of radius R, made up of the same material, are all heated to 20°C above room temperature. When left to cool in the room, which of them will reach the room temperature first?
Explanation
The rate at which an object cools depends on its surface area-to-volume ratio and temperature difference with the surroundings. A higher surface area-to-volume ratio allows more heat to be dissipated into the surroundings, leading to faster cooling. The sphere has the largest surface area compared to the cube and circular plate. The larger the surface area, the more heat can be radiated or transferred to the surroundings, which leads to a faster cooling rate. The sphere cools faster than the circular plate and cube for the same radius. The more heat the sphere can radiate, the quicker it will reach room temperature compared to objects with smaller surface areas. Note: Here, we can ignore the impact of volume as the sphere, disc or cube all are hollow with negligible thickness.
UPSC 2002Science and Technology · Physics: Optics and Sound
Q76. Consider the following statements: 1. Light of longer wavelengths is scattered much more than the light of shorter wavelength. 2. The speed of visible light in water is 0.95 times the speed in vacuum. 3. Radio waves are produced by rapidly oscillating electrical currents. 4. To detect the overspeeding vehicles, police use the Doppler effect of reflected short radio waves. Which of these statements are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: According to Rayleigh scattering, light with shorter wavelengths (e.g., blue light) is scattered more than light with longer wavelengths (e.g., red light).
Statement 2 is incorrect: The refractive index of water is approximately 1.33, so the speed of light in water is about 1/1.33 0.75° the speed in a vacuum.
Statement 3 is correct: Radio waves are a type of electromagnetic radiation generated when electrical charges oscillate in an antenna. These oscillations create alternating electric and magnetic fields that propagate as waves. This principle is the basis of wireless communication technologies like radio, TV, and mobile networks.
Statement 4 is correct: The Doppler effect is used in radar guns to measure the speed of moving vehicles by analyzing the frequency shift of reflected radio waves.
UPSC 2002Science and Technology · Physics: Optics and Sound
Q77. Consider the following natural phenomena: 1. Terrestrial heating 2. Reflection of light 3. Refraction of light 4. Diffraction of light Due to which of these phenomena is a mirage formed?
Explanation
A mirage is primarily caused by terrestrial heating and the refraction of light. Mirage causes deceptive appearance of a distant object or objects caused by light ray bending (refraction) in different density layers of air. Terrestrial Heating: The ground is intensely heated by the sun (such as a hot road or desert). This heats the air near the surface, making it less dense than the cooler air above. The temperature gradient creates a gradient in the refractive index of the air. Refraction of Light: Light from the sky or distant objects passes through the layers of air with varying temperatures and densities. The light bends (refracts) as it moves from cooler, denser air to hotter, less dense air. This bending creates the illusion of water or a mirrored surface on the ground.
UPSC 2002Indian Economy · External Sector of India
Q78. Consider the following statements: Full convertibility of the rupee may mean: 1. Its free float with the international currencies 2. Its direct exchange with any other international currency at any prescribed place inside and outside the country 3. It acts just like any other international currency. Which of these statements are correct?
Explanation
Full Convertibility refers to a currency’s ability to be freely exchanged for any other currency without restrictions, both for current account transactions (like trade in goods and services) and capital account transactions (like investments and loans).
Statement 1 is correct: Full convertibility means the rupee can be freely exchanged with other international currencies without restrictions on the exchange rate, allowing it to float based on market demand and supply.
Statement 2 is correct: Full convertibility would enable the rupee to be directly exchanged with any foreign currency at both domestic and international financial institutions, facilitating smoother global trade and investment transactions.
Statement 3 is correct: A fully convertible rupee would function like an international currency, allowing unrestricted movement of capital across borders, making India more integrated into the global economy.
UPSC 2002Polity · Constitutional Bodies
Q79. Consider the following statements with reference to India: 1. The Chief Election Commission and other Election Commissioners enjoy equal powers but receive unequal salaries 2. The Chief Election Commissioner is entitled to the same salary as is provided to a judge of the Supreme Court 3. The Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in like manner and on like grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court 4. The term of office of the Election Commissioner is five years from the date he assumes his office or till the day he attains the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier Which of these statements are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and other Election Commissioners (ECs) have equal powers and responsibilities within the Election Commission of India. They receive equal salaries as well and there is no disparity in salaries between the Chief Election Commissioner and the other Election Commissioners.
Statement 2 is correct: The Chief Election Commissioner is entitled to the same salary as is provided to a judge of the Supreme Court. Note: This fact was correct in accordance to the year in which it was asked. As per latest amendments in the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service, and Term of Office) Act, 2023, the salary of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and Election Commissioners (ECs) is now equivalent to that of the Cabinet Secretary.
Statement 3 is correct: The removal process for the Chief Election Commissioner mirrors that of a Supreme Court judge. This safeguards the CEC’s independence and ensures impartiality in their role. While an EC can be removed on the CEC’s recommendation.
Statement 4 is incorrect: An Election Commissioner serves a term of six years or until they reach the age of 65, whichever comes earlier. This discrepancy makes the statement incorrect.
Additional insight:
As per The Chief Election Commissioner And Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service And Term of Office) Act, 2023 Qualifications: The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners shall be appointed from amongst persons who are holding or have held a post equivalent to the rank of Secretary to the Government of India and shall be persons of integrity, who have knowledge of and experience in management and conduct of elections. The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners shall not be eligible for re-appointment. Where an Election Commissioner is appointed as Chief Election Commissioner, his term of office shall not be more than six years in aggregate as the Election Commissioner and the Chief Election Commissioner. Selection Committee: It consists of Prime Minister (Chairperson), leader of Opposition in House of People and Union Cabinet minister (nominated by Prime Minister) Search Committee: A Search Committee headed by the Minister of Law and Justice and comprising two other members not below the rank of Secretary to the Government of India, shall prepare a panel of five persons for consideration of the Selection Committee. Salary: The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners shall be paid a salary which is equal to the salary of a Judge of the Supreme Court.
UPSC 2002Polity · Constitutional Bodies
Q80. Which one of the following authorities recommends the principles governing the grants-in-aid of the revenues to the states out of the Consolidated Fund of India?
Explanation
The Finance Commission plays a crucial role in India’s fiscal structure. It is a constitutional body constituted by the President of India every five years, or more frequently if deemed necessary. Its primary responsibility is to recommend the distribution of financial resources between the central and state governments. One key function of the Finance Commission is to propose principles and guidelines for distributing grants-in-aid to states from the Consolidated Fund of India. These grants aim to support states in addressing fiscal needs, ensuring balanced regional development, and mitigating economic disparities among states.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
71
2002
(a) Indian Council Act, 1861
72
2002
(c) A is true but R is false
73
2002
(b) Consolidated Fund of the State
74
2002
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
75
2002
(c) Sphere
76
2002
(d) 3 and 4
77
2002
(c) 1 and 3
78
2002
(d) 1, 2 and 3
79
2002
(b) 2 and 3
80
2002
(a) Finance Commission
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on all subjects?
This page covers 128 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on the UPSC 2002 Prelims, asked from 1995 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
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Attempt each question first, then open the answer and read the explanation for every option. Repeat by chapter, and track which statements UPSC reuses across years. Previous year questions show the exam pattern and difficulty level.
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Questions on the UPSC 2002 Prelims are available for 31 years, from 1995 to 2025. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.