Biology: Zoology: UPSC Previous Year Questions (Science and Technology)
12 previous year UPSC Prelims questions on Biology: Zoology (Science and Technology). Choose an option to see the answer and explanation.
Explanations state facts as of the year each question was asked; words like “recently” refer to that year.
Showing 1–10 of 12 questions
UPSC 2001Science and Technology · Biology: Zoology
Q1. In the eye donation, which part of the eye is transplanted from the donor?
Explanation
In eye donation, the part of the eye that is transplanted is the cornea. The cornea is the clear, dome-shaped front surface of the eye that allows light to enter and is responsible for focusing light onto the retina. It can become damaged due to injury, disease, or aging. A corneal transplant replaces the damaged cornea with healthy tissue from a deceased donor.
Option (b) is incorrect: The lens is located behind the cornea and focuses light onto the retina. It is not transplanted during eye donation, as it can be replaced with an artificial lens in procedures like cataract surgery.
Option (c) is incorrect: The retina is a sensitive tissue lining the back of the eye that converts light into neural signals. Retinal damage cannot currently be treated through transplantation during eye donation.
Option (d) is incorrect: The whole eye is not transplanted due to the complexity of the organ and the high risk of rejection.
UPSC 2001Science and Technology · Biology: Zoology
Q2. A man whose blood group is not known meets with a serious accident and needs blood transfusion immediately. Which one of the blood groups mentioned below and readily available in the hospital will be safe for transfusion?
Explanation
Option (a) is correct: O, Rh- blood group is known as the universal donor because it does not have A, B, or Rh antigens. If the patient’s blood type is not O, receiving blood with A or B antigens can trigger an immune response, leading to serious complications. If the patient is Rh-, receiving Rh+ blood can lead to the development of Rh antibodies, which can cause problems in future pregnancies or transfusions. Therefore, O, Rh- blood group will be safe for transfusion if the blood group of the patient is not known.
Option (b) is incorrect: If the recipient is Rh-negative, transfusion of Rh+ blood can cause an immune reaction, leading to complications like hemolysis or sensitization.
Option (c) is incorrect: AB, Rh- has both A and B antigens, which can trigger an immune response in individuals with A, B, or O blood groups.
Option (d) is incorrect: AB, Rh+ blood group is highly specific and can only be safely given to individuals with the AB, Rh+ blood group. It is not suitable for transfusion in emergencies where the recipient’s blood group is unknown.
UPSC 2001Science and Technology · Biology: Zoology
Q3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I (Achievement in genetics)
List-II (Scientists)
A. Discovery of transduction and conjugation in bacteria
1. Khurana
B. Establishing the sex-linked inheritance
2. Kornberg
C. Isolation of DNA polymerase from E. coli
3. Lederberg
D. Establishing the complete genetic code
4. Morgan
5. Ochoa
Explanation
A is matched with 3: Lederberg discovered bacterial conjugation (exchange of genetic material between bacteria) and transduction (transfer of DNA between bacteria via viruses). B is matched with 4: Thomas Hunt Morgan’s work with fruit flies (Drosophila) provided strong evidence for the chromosomal theory of inheritance and firmly established the concept of sex-linked genes. C is matched with 2: Kornberg isolated DNA polymerase I from Escherichia coli, which was crucial for understanding DNA replication. D is matched with 1: Har Gobind Khorana played a significant role in deciphering the genetic code, which specifies how the sequence of nucleotides in DNA translates into the sequence of amino acids in proteins.
UPSC 2001Science and Technology · Biology: Zoology
Q4. Which of the following features of DNA makes it uniquely suited to store and transmit genetic information from generation to generation?
Explanation
The complementary nature of the two DNA strands ensures accurate replication and transmission of genetic information. Adenine (A) always pairs with Thymine (T), and Guanine (G) always pairs with Cytosine (C) on the opposite strand. This allows for precise copying of the genetic information during cell division.
UPSC 2001Science and Technology · Biology: Zoology
Q5. "Metastasis" is the process by which:
Explanation
Metastasis is the process through which cancer cells spread from the primary tumor to distant parts of the body, forming secondary tumors in organs such as the lungs, liver, bones, or brain. This process is responsible for nearly 90% of cancer-related deaths, showcasing the aggressive and life-threatening nature of malignant tumors. The process begins with Epithelial-to-Mesenchymal Transition (EMT), where cancer cells gain the ability to migrate and invade surrounding tissues. These cells then enter the bloodstream or lymphatic system (intravasation) and travel to other parts of the body. While in circulation, they evade immune system attacks and other hostile conditions. Upon reaching a new site, the cells exit blood vessels (extravasation) and adapt to the local environment to form secondary tumors. Interestingly, some metastatic cells can remain dormant for years before becoming active again, contributing to cancer recurrence.
UPSC 2001Science and Technology · Biology: Zoology
Q6. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I (Substance)
List-II (Physiological role)
A. Ptyalin
1. Converts angiotensinogen in blood into angiotensin
B. Pepsin
2. Digests starch
C. Renin
3. Digests proteins
D. Oxytocin
4. Hydrolyses fats
5. Induces contraction of smooth muscles
Explanation
Enzymes are biological catalysts, crucial for various biological processes, including digestion, metabolism, and DNA replication. Hormones are chemical messengers produced by endocrine glands which regulate various physiological processes, such as growth, development, metabolism, reproduction, and mood. A is matched with 2: Ptyalin, also known as salivary amylase, is an enzyme present in saliva that breaks down starch into maltose and smaller polysaccharides during digestion. B is matched with 3: Pepsin is a proteolytic enzyme secreted in the stomach. It helps digest proteins into smaller peptides by breaking peptide bonds in acidic conditions. C is matched with 1: Renin is an enzyme secreted by the kidneys in response to low blood pressure. It converts angiotensinogen (produced by the liver) into angiotensin I, which is further converted to angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor. D is matched with 5: Oxytocin is a hormone produced by the hypothalamus and secreted by the pituitary gland. It induces the contraction of smooth muscles, particularly in the uterus during childbirth and in milk ejection during breastfeeding.
UPSC 2001Science and Technology · Biology: Zoology
Q7. Antigen is a substance which:
Explanation
Antigens are recognized by the immune system as foreign substances, which stimulates the production of specific antibodies by B-cells (a type of white blood cell). Antibodies bind to antigens, marking them for destruction by other immune cells or neutralizing their harmful effects. Antigens can be proteins, polysaccharides, or lipids. For example, the spike protein of the SARS-CoV-2 virus acts as an antigen, triggering an immune response and the production of antibodies in infected individuals or after vaccination. The immune response involves two types of lymphocytes:
1. B-cells produce antibodies that target antigens.
UPSC 2001Science and Technology · Biology: Zoology
Q8. Which organelle in the cell, other than nucleus, contains DNA?
Explanation
Option (d) is correct: Chloroplasts and mitochondria are unique organelles as they contain their own circular DNA, similar to bacterial chromosomes, along with ribosomes and protein synthesis machinery. Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA), present in all eukaryotic cells, is maternally inherited and essential for ATP production. Chloroplast DNA (cpDNA) is found in photosynthetic eukaryotes. It encodes proteins for photosynthesis. Their extranuclear DNA supports the endosymbiotic theory which suggests that these organelles evolved from free-living bacteria engulfed by ancestral eukaryotes. Despite their partial independence, mitochondria and chloroplasts still rely on nuclear-encoded proteins for various functions, distinguishing them from other organelles that depend entirely on nuclear DNA. Options (a), (b) and (c) are incorrect:
Centrioles are involved in cell division and the formation of spindle fibers but do not contain DNA. They play a structural role and have no genetic material. The Golgi apparatus modifies, packages, and transports proteins but does not contain DNA or protein synthesis machinery, depending entirely on the cell’s nucleus. Lysosomes are enzyme-filled organelles responsible for digesting cellular waste but lack DNA. They function solely under the control of nuclear-encoded proteins.
UPSC 2001Science and Technology · Biology: Zoology
Q9. Which of the following cell organelles play the most significant role in protein synthesis?
Explanation
The combination of ribosomes and the endoplasmic reticulum plays a pivotal role in protein synthesis. Ribosomes are the molecular machines responsible for translating messenger RNA (mRNA) into polypeptide chains, which then fold into functional proteins. They can be found floating freely in the cytoplasm or attached to the endoplasmic reticulum. The ER is a network of membranous tubules within the cell. The rough ER (RER) is studded with ribosomes on its cytoplasmic surface, making it the site of protein synthesis for proteins destined for secretion or for use in the cell membrane. After synthesis, these proteins are folded and undergo post-translational modifications within the RER.
UPSC 2001Science and Technology · Biology: Zoology
Q10. The cellular and molecular control of programmed cell death is known as
Explanation
Cell death is a fundamental biological process crucial for maintaining cellular homeostasis, development, and defense mechanisms in multicellular organisms. There are two primary types of cell death: papoptosis and necrosis.
Option (a) is correct: The cellular and molecular control of programmed cell death is called apoptosis, a regulated process triggered by physiological or pathological signals. It ensures the removal of damaged or harmful cells without harming the organism. Key processes include cell shrinkage, DNA fragmentation, and the formation of apoptotic bodies, which are engulfed by nearby cells or macrophages.
Answer key for these questions
Q
UPSC year
Correct answer
1
2001
(a) Cornea
2
2001
(a) O, Rh-
3
2001
(d) A - 3; B - 4; C - 2; D - 1
4
2001
(a) Complementary of the two strands
5
2001
(b) cancer cells spread through the blood or lymphatic system to other sites or organs
6
2001
(a) A - 2; B - 3; C - 1; D - 5
7
2001
(d) stimulates formation of antibody
8
2001
(d) Mitochondrion
9
2001
(b) Endoplasmic reticulum and Ribosome
10
2001
(a) Apoptosis
Frequently asked questions
How many previous year UPSC questions are there on Biology: Zoology?
This page covers 12 previous year UPSC Prelims GS Paper-I questions on Biology: Zoology (Science and Technology), asked from 1996 to 2025. Each has the correct answer and an explanation.
How should I use previous year UPSC questions for Prelims?
Attempt each question first, then open the answer and read the explanation for every option. Repeat by chapter, and track which statements UPSC reuses across years. Previous year questions show the exam pattern and difficulty level.
Which years are covered for Biology: Zoology?
Questions on Biology: Zoology (Science and Technology) are available for 17 years, from 1996 to 2025. Use the Year filter to practise a single paper.